Fundamentals of disaster medicine test for nurses. Tests on disaster medicine and first aid. It is better to use for treating abrasions
Module 1. Life safety.
Topic 1. Life safety in medical organizations.
1. Medical workers in the performance of their professional duties may be exposed to the harmful effects of factors:
A) physical, chemical, biological, psychophysiological
B) physiological, biochemical, anthropological
B) physical, radiation, chemical, dynamic
D) psychophysiological, social, natural, anthropogenic
2. Unfavorable mechanical, thermal, radiation factors, vibration are classified as factors:
A) physical
B) biological
B) psychophysiological
4) chemical
3. An ordered set of bodies, officials and organizational connections designed to manage activities to preserve the life and health of workers in the labor process is called...
A) labor protection and safety system
B) worker safety system
B) labor protection rules
D) production discipline
4. Employees of medical organizations are required to undergo preventive medical examinations...
A) primary and periodic
B) primary and secondary
B) planned and emergency
D) general and special
5. The suitability of an employee for a specific job, the identification of his somatic and mental illnesses is carried out during a medical examination
A) primary
B) general
B) planned
D) periodic
6. Dynamic monitoring of the health status of workers, identification and prevention of occupational diseases is carried out during medical examinations
A) periodic
B) primary
B) planned
7. State supervision and control over compliance with labor protection legislation in medical institutions is entrusted to...
A) Ministry of Health of the Russian Federation
B) Ministry of Internal Affairs of the Russian Federation
B) heads of medical institutions
8. As part of ensuring patient safety in medical institutions, it is important...
A) ensuring the cleanliness of the hands of medical workers
B) high-tech medical care
C) proper organization of issuing coupons for doctor’s appointments
D) availability of ambulance transport for the evacuation of patients
9. Monitoring compliance with internal regulations, labor discipline, and the behavior of patients and staff in a medical institution is assigned to...
A) duty administrator
B) chief physician
B) head of department
D) senior nurse
10. The investigation of accidents and occupational diseases in a medical organization is carried out ...
A) a specially created commission
B) investigative bodies of the Ministry of Internal Affairs of the Russian Federation
B) inventory commission
D) General Prosecutor's Office of the Russian Federation
Topic 2. Methodological and legal foundations of human life safety.
1.The field of scientific knowledge, covering the theory and practice of human protection from dangerous and harmful factors in all spheres of human activity, is called...
A) life safety
B) civil defense
B) disaster medicine
D) labor protection
2. The environment, consisting of many factors that can have a direct or indirect, immediate or remote impact on a person’s life, his health and offspring is called ...
A) habitat
B) operating environment
D) civilization
3. The habitat is divided into types...
A) natural and man-made
B) technogenic and anthropogenic
B) natural and elemental
D) industrial and household
4. By what percentage does a person’s health depend on his behavior and the state of his environment (according to WHO).
5. Situations in which, in the process of life, an individual loses the ability to act rationally and adequately to the current situation are called...
A) extreme
B) critical
B) transcendental
D) dangerous
6. The system for ensuring the safety of life and health of workers in the process of work is called...
A) labor protection
B) safety precautions
B) civil defense
D) state security
7. The main document of legislation in the field of security
A) Constitution of the Russian Federation
B) Decrees of the President of the Russian Federation
B) Decrees of the Government of the Russian Federation
D) Orders of the Minister of Emergency Situations
8. The state of protection of the vital interests of the individual, society and state from internal and external threats is called...
A) security
B) protection
B) defense
D) ecology
9. According to the degree and nature of the impact on the human body, all negative factors are conventionally divided into...
A) harmful and dangerous
B) harmful and extraordinary
B) dangerous and catastrophic
D) extreme and chronic
10. Factors that, under certain conditions, lead to traumatic injuries or sudden and severe health problems are called...
A) dangerous
B) harmful
B) extreme
D) emergency
Module 2. First aid.
Topic 1. General principles and means of providing first aid to victims in emergency situations.
1. First aid to victims is a set of measures:
A) performed at the site of injury in the order of self- and mutual assistance
B) performed in a medical institution
C) performed using the necessary antiseptics and medications
D) performed by the ambulance team
2. The optimal time for first aid is:
A) 30-60 minutes
B) 2-3 hours
B) over 3 hours
D) over 6 hours
3. The first aid provider must:
A) have knowledge, skills and abilities
B) know the principles of first aid
B) observe safety precautions
D) be prepared to provide first aid
4. The first aid provider must:
A) attract others to help
B) do not involve others in helping
C) isolate the victim from others
5. The following means are used to provide first aid:
A) service and assistants
B) assistants
B) time cards
D) medicinal
Topic 2. Temporary stop of external bleeding. Rules for applying a tourniquet.
1. In case of arterial bleeding, a tourniquet is applied:
A) above the wound
B) below the wound
B) on the wound area
D) above and below the wound
2. When bleeding from the arteries of the foot, the point of digital pressure is located:
A) midway between the lateral and medial ankles below the ankle joint
B) to the right of the medial malleolus
B) to the left of the lateral malleolus
D) in the center of the popliteal fossa
3. If a rapidly increasing pulsating hematoma is detected after a bruise, one can assume:
A) artery damage
B) extensive crushing of subcutaneous tissue
B) damage to a large venous vessel
D) bone fracture
4. The criterion for the correct position of the tourniquet on the limb is:
A) absence of pulsation in the arteries below the tourniquet, cessation of bleeding from the wound
B) pain in the area where the tourniquet is applied
C) reducing bleeding from the wound
D) blue discoloration of the limb below the tourniquet
5. To stop external bleeding in fractures, you cannot use:
B) application of a tourniquet
B) applying a pressure bandage
D) finger pressure of the artery
6. Arterial bleeding is characterized by:
A) flow of blood in a pulsating stream
B) dark cherry blood color
B) slow bleeding
7. In case of arterial bleeding from a wound in the upper third of the shoulder, the optimal point for temporarily stopping the bleeding using finger pressure is located at the level of:
A) the head of the humerus in the axillary fossa
B) II ribs in the subclavian region
B) 1 ribs in the supraclavicular region outward from the attachment point of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
D) humerus in the lower third of the inner surface
8. The point of pressure on the femoral artery to temporarily stop bleeding using finger pressure is located:
A) above the middle of the Pupart ligament to the horizontal ramus of the pubis
B) below the middle of the Pupart ligament to the horizontal ramus of the pubis
B) in the center of the popliteal fossa to the femur
D) below the middle of the Poupart ligament to the middle of the femoral neck
9. Venous blood is characterized by:
A) dark cherry blood color
B) flow of blood in a pulsating stream
B) slow flow of scarlet blood
D) bleeding over the entire surface of the wound
10. Capillary bleeding is characterized by:
A) bleeding over the entire surface of the wound
B) dark cherry blood color
B) slow bleeding
D) flow of blood in a pulsating stream
11. Specify the absolute indications for applying a tourniquet:
A) massive arterial bleeding, traumatic amputation of a limb
B) capillary bleeding
B) mixed bleeding
D) venous bleeding
12. In case of venous bleeding, a pressure bandage is applied:
A) on the wound area
B) below the wound
B) above the wound
D) above and below the wound
13. Hemorrhagic shock occurs when:
A) massive blood loss
B) violation of myocardial contractile function
B) long-term compartment syndrome
D) peritonitis
Topic 3. Wounds. Desmurgy.
1. A wound with damage to:
A) nerve trunks
B) subcutaneous tissue
2. To provide first aid for a penetrating chest wound, use:
A) sealing bandage
B) Deso bandage
B) pressure bandage
D) turtle bandage
3. When treating bite wounds, you must:
A) immediate and thorough rinsing with water for 10-15 minutes with soap or other antiseptic substances that kill the rabies virus
B) applying a pressure bandage and promptly transporting the victim to the emergency room
C) carrying out immediate vaccination at the site of injury
D) applying a tourniquet above the wound to prevent further infection
4. To treat an abrasion, it is better to use:
A) 0.1% solution of miramistin
B) skin antiseptic Septo-man
B) 2% alcohol solution of brilliant green
D) 5% iodine solution
5. When providing first aid to a victim with a penetrating injury to the abdominal cavity, it is necessary:
A) surround the prolapsed organs with a roll of bandages and apply a sterile bandage
B) place the prolapsed organs into the abdominal cavity and apply a sterile bandage to the wound
C) treat the wound with an antiseptic and apply a tight, sealed bandage
D) without removing the wounding object, cover with an airtight bandage
6. A spica bandage is applied to:
B) joints
To the head
7. Apply to the ankle joint area:
A) figure-of-eight bandage
B) spica bandage
B) sling bandage
D) circular bandage
8. A wound with damage to:
A) internal organs
B) subcutaneous tissue
9. When providing first aid for penetrating chest wounds, you must:
A) treat the edges of the wound with an antiseptic, apply a sealed sterile bandage
B) treat the edges of the wound with an antiseptic, apply a pressure bandage
C) treat the edges of the wound with an antiseptic and apply a sterile bandage
D) treat the edges of the wound, remove the wounding object from the wound, apply a sterile bandage
10. When applying a bandage, you must:
A) apply the next round of bandage, overlapping the previous one by 2/3
B) apply each subsequent round of bandage next to the previous one
C) apply each subsequent round of bandage on top of the previous one, covering it completely
11. Closed types of injury include everything except:
A) Injuries
B) Sprains
B) Dislocations
12. In case of injury to the elbow joint area, use:
A) turtle converging bandage
B) spica bandage
B) Deso bandage
D) Hippocratic bandage
Topic 4. First aid for fractures and dislocations. Transport immobilization.
1. Specify the most characteristic symptom for diagnosing a rib fracture due to chest trauma:
A) crepitus of bone fragments
B) chest pain
B) Shortness of breath
D) chest deformation
2. In case of a fracture of the humerus, it is advisable to use improvised means for immobilization:
A) Kerchief
B) Belt
D) thick cord
3. For proper immobilization in case of a bone fracture, all of the following conditions must be met, except:
A) be sure to remove clothes and shoes before applying a transport splint
B) when applying a splint, use cotton-gauze pads
C) ensure fixation of at least two adjacent joints
D) immobilize in the average physiological position of the limb
4. When providing first aid to a victim with a fracture, it is necessary first of all:
A) give the injured limb a comfortable position and perform transport immobilization
B) eliminate the curvature of the limb with a closed fracture
C) set the bones inward in case of an open fracture
D) apply a pressure bandage to the area of the open fracture to reduce blood loss and immobilization
5. If the ankle joint is sprained, the following is applied for transport immobilization:
A) figure-of-eight bandage
B) spica bandage
B) turtle converging bandage
D) turtle bandage
6. In case of an open fracture of the shoulder with bone fragments protruding into the wound, it is necessary:
A) apply a sterile dressing over the protruding bones and immobilize
B) remove movable bone fragments from the wound and apply a sterile bandage
B) apply a pressure bandage
D) set the bones into the wound and apply a sterile bandage
7. To immobilize a limb in case of dislocation in the shoulder joint, you can use everything except:
A) Elansky tires
B) scarf bandage
B) vacuum tire
D) Kramer tires
8. Providing first aid for a sprained or torn ligament includes all of the following except:
A) maximum limb flexion
B) application of a tight bandage and immobilization (application of a splint, scarf bandage, etc.) C) creation of functional rest for the damaged joint or muscle
D) cold to the injury site
9. Before transporting to a hospital, a victim with a bruise of the abdominal wall must:
A) place the victim in a supine position and apply cold to the stomach
B) apply a pressure bandage to the abdomen
C) put the victim in a sitting position and urgently transport him to a hospital D) put cold on the stomach, give him as much liquid as possible to drink
10. When providing first aid to a victim with an open fracture of the leg bones, you must:
A) perform transport immobilization with fixation of at least two joints above and below the fracture and apply a sterile bandage to the wound
B) treat the wound with antiseptics, remove foreign objects and perform transport immobilization
B) apply a hemostatic tourniquet
D) perform transport immobilization by fixing the fracture area with a bandage to the splint
11. In case of a fracture of the leg bones with a growing pulsating hematoma, bleeding is stopped:
A) by finger pressure of the popliteal artery and application of a tourniquet
B) hypothermia
B) applying a splint to transport the victim
D) applying a pressure bandage
12. The main diagnostic signs of a bone fracture are all of the following, except:
A) changes in skin color
B) loss of function
D) limb deformities
13. First aid for traumatic shock includes all of the following, except:
A) use of narcotic drugs
B) stopping bleeding
C) warning of general hypothermia
D) psychological support for the victim
Topic 5. Principles and methods of cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
1. The effectiveness of cardiopulmonary resuscitation when providing first aid is determined by the following parameters:
A) the appearance of a pulse in the carotid artery, constriction of the pupils, gradual disappearance of cyanosis B) the appearance of a pulse in the carotid artery, dilation of the pupils
B) the appearance of a pulse in the carotid, brachial and femoral arteries
D) increase in pupil diameter
2. Define the symptom of “cat’s eye”:
A) deformation of the pupil when the eye is compressed
B) lack of pupillary reaction to light
C) clouding and drying of the cornea of the eye
D) constriction of the pupil
3. Signs of life are:
A) heartbeat
B) “cat’s eye” symptom
B) blue-purple spots on the skin
D) lack of breathing
4. Resuscitation measures are stopped when:
A) the appearance of independent heartbeat and breathing
B) the appearance of a reaction of the pupils to light
B) disappearance of cyanosis of the skin
D) the appearance of pulsation in the carotid arteries
5. The duration of artificial inspiration during cardiopulmonary resuscitation is:
6. When performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a child, the first thing you need to do is:
A) restoration of airway patency
B) defibrillation
B) indirect cardiac massage
D) two breaths lasting 1-1.5 seconds
7. Signs of death include everything except:
A) constriction of the pupil when exposed to light
B) “cat’s eye” symptom
B) cold body and rigor
D) drying and clouding of the cornea
8. The first priority measure when performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation in an adult victim is:
A) 30 chest compressions
B) 15 chest compressions
B) 2 breaths
9. The criterion for the effectiveness of indirect cardiac massage is:
A) the appearance of a pulse in the carotid arteries
B) pupil dilation
B) appearance of cyanotic spots
D) aspiration of gastric contents
10. Restoration of airway patency must be performed as the first stage of cardiopulmonary resuscitation in case of:
A) the occurrence of clinical death as a result of aspiration of foreign bodies
B) atrial fibrillation
B) syncopal drowning
D) suspicion of primary cardiac arrest
11. The ratio of the frequency of inspiration to the frequency of chest compressions during resuscitation of victims over 20 years of age is:
Topic 6. First aid in case of accidents and sudden illnesses.
1. A second degree burn is characterized by:
A) preservation of sensitivity, presence of blisters
B) hyperemia
B) decreased sensitivity
D) formation of blisters with hemorrhagic contents
2. Burns caused by multiple factors (steam, chemical, high temperature, etc.) are:
A) combined
B) combined
B) adjacent
D) multiple
3. Indicate the type of drowning, which is most characterized by cyanosis of the skin and mucous membranes and abundant foam from the mouth and nose:
A) true
B) false
B) syncopal
D) mixed
4. Indicate the main route of penetration of toxic combustion products and other gaseous toxic substances:
A) respiratory tract
B) through the digestive tract
D) mucous membranes
5. When providing first aid for poisoning, gastric lavage is performed to:
A) remove from the body the part of the poison that has not yet been absorbed into the blood;
B) stop further entry of poison into the body;
C) bind or neutralize the poison and hinder its further absorption;
D) neutralize the absorbed part of the poison;
D) ensure the implementation of basic vital functions.
6. Local changes under the influence of electric current manifest themselves in the form of:
A) burns
B) seizures
B) laryngospasm
D) respiratory arrest
7. When vomiting with blood, providing first aid is necessary:
A) lay the victim on his side, put cold on his stomach, call an ambulance B) give plenty of warm drink, wrap him up
B) give the victim a sitting position
D) give plenty of cold drinks
8. In case of an allergic reaction to a bee sting, accompanied by Quincke's edema, first of all it is necessary:
A) give an antihistamine, for example, diazolin
B) calm the victim and call an ambulance
C) lay the victim on his side, wrap him up
D) try to remove the sting from the wound
9. For a snake bite, first aid includes:
A) ensuring rest of the damaged area, and prompt delivery of the victim to a medical facility
B) cauterization of the wound
C) applying a tourniquet above the wound
D) applying a tourniquet below the wound
10. When providing first aid, the following is used to bind a toxic substance that has entered the gastrointestinal tract:
A) enterosorption, for example, activated carbon, etc.
B) cleansing enema
B) blood transfusion
D) gastric lavage
11. When providing first aid for frostbite, you must:
A) heat in warm water at a temperature of up to 320 C for 20 minutes
B) lubricate frostbitten areas of the body with fat or rich cream
C) rub frostbitten areas of the body with snow
D) warm up at a temperature of 40-450C
12. Burns accompanied by injury under the influence of other damaging factors (wound, bruise, fracture, etc.) are:
A) combined
B) combined
B) adjacent
D) multiple
13. When providing first aid for burns, you must:
A) irrigate the burn surface with cold water or apply a cold object or ice pack B) mechanically clean the burn surface from foreign bodies, including remnants of clothing
C) apply a bandage with ointment or cream, if they are not available, treat with oil
D) treat the burn surface with an antiseptic
Module 3. National security.
Topic 1. National security of Russia.
1. The national interests of Russia are the totality of the interests of the individual, society and the state in...
A) economic, domestic political, social, international, military and other spheres.
B) the growth of private property and the development of market relations.
D) in the innovation policy of the state, in the development of nanotechnology
2. The interests of the individual are...
A) real provision of constitutional rights and freedoms, personal safety, in improving the quality and standard of living, in physical, spiritual and intellectual development.
B) protection of private property.
C) expansion of paid health care and education services
D) state innovation policy in the development of nanotechnology.
3. The interests of society are...
A) strengthening democracy, social harmony, creative activity of the population and the spiritual revival of the country.
B) the growth of private entrepreneurship.
C) expansion of paid health care and education services.
D) state innovation policy in the development of nanotechnology
4. The basic national interests of the state are:
A) state sovereignty, territorial integrity, socio-political stability, constitutional order, etc.
B) private enterprise and the market.
C) paid services in the fields of healthcare and education.
D) innovation policy, development of nanotechnology.
5. One of the external threats to Russia’s national security includes:
A) territorial claims against the Russian Federation, the threat of secession of certain territories from the Russian Federation.
B) illegal trafficking of weapons on Russian territory.
C) an attempt to forcibly change the constitutional order.
D) the activities of separatist movements in the Russian Federation.
6. One of the internal threats to Russia’s national security includes:
A) an attempt to forcibly change the constitutional order.
B) deployment of hostile groups of forces and means.
C) expansion of military blocs to the detriment of the military security of the Russian Federation.
D) demonstration of military force near the borders of the Russian Federation
7. Types of threats to the national security of the Russian Federation:
A) external, internal, cross-border.
B) demographic, social.
B) political, military.
D) environmental, man-made.
8. Russia’s national interests in the defense sector are to ensure...
A) security of the individual, society and state.
B) development of the country's economy, modernization.
B) development of nanotechnology.
D) the safety of Russian citizens living abroad.
Topic 2. Modern wars and armed conflicts.
1. Military conflicts are divided into the following types by scale:
A) armed conflict, local war, regional war, large-scale war.
B) nuclear missile war and conventional war.
C) just war, unjust war.
D) war in aerospace, war in the waters of the world's oceans.
2. Local war is war:
A) between two or more states, but on a limited territory, pursuing limited military-political goals.
B) with the participation of two or more states for the complete destruction of each other.
REFERENCE TESTS
Tosection: Disaster Medicine and
Reanimation
Questions for the section: Modern principles of organizing medical care for the population in emergencies and disasters.
1. 5 killed
2. more than 10 affected
3. more than 20 affected
4 more than 50 affected
2. The disaster medicine service is:
2 sanitary posts
3 sanitary squads
4 emergency medical teams
5 mobile hospitals
4. The following are responsible for the creation, training and equipment of emergency medical care units:
1. MSDF headquarters
2. inter-district centers for disaster medicine
3. city or district administration
4. heads of health care facilities
5. The emergency first aid team consists of:
1. of 1 nurse and 1 orderly
2. of 1 nurse and 2 orderlies
3. of 2-3 nurses and 1 orderly
6. The emergency medical team consists of:
1. of 1 doctor and 1 nurse
2. of 2 doctors and 2 nurses
3. of 1 doctor, 2 nurses and 1 orderly
4. of 1 doctor, 1 nurse and 1 orderly
7. The specialized medical care team consists of:
1. of 1 doctor and 2 nurses
2. of 2 doctors, 2 nurses and a driver
3. of 2 doctors, 3 nurses, 1 orderly and 1 driver.
8. Medical and evacuation support for those affected in emergency situations is carried out:
1. in two stages
2. in three stages
3. in four stages
4. at once
9. At the first stage, emergency medical care is provided to victims:
1. ambulance crews
2. emergency first aid teams (EDT)
3. medical and nursing teams (BEMT)
4. specialized medical care teams
10. Stage 1 includes medical and evacuation measures,
carried out:
1 in the emergency area
2 on the border of the emergency outbreak
2. en route from the outbreak to the health care facility
1 in stationary health care facilities
5. in outpatient healthcare facilities
11. Stage 2 includes medical and evacuation measures carried out by:
1. at the border of the emergency outbreak
2. en route from the source of the emergency to the health care facility
3. in stationary health care facilities
4. in outpatient healthcare facilities
12 Qualified and specialized medical care
it turns out:
1 at stage 1
2. at stage 2
3 at stage 3
13 . The following phases are distinguished in the development of emergencies and disasters:
1. occurrence
2. insulation
3. stabilization
4. rescue
5. Remediation
14. The primary task in the isolation phase is:
1 first aid
2. collection of victims
3. reporting an emergency to the ambulance service or to the nearest medical facility
4. evacuation of seriously injured
Providing medical care in an emergency situation begins with:
1. stopping bleeding
2. resuscitation
3. eliminate respiratory disorders
4 medical triage
15. Types of medical triage:
1 intrapoint
2. diagnostic and treatment
5. sanitary
17 Intra-point sorting is carried out:
1. in the isolation phase. .
2. in the rescue phase
2 in the recovery phase
18. When intra-point sorting is determined:
1st priority of medical care
2nd evacuation order
19 Purpose of evacuation transport sorting:
1 determination of the required number of ambulance transport
2 determination of evacuation priority
3. determination of the destination
20 The injured, assigned to the 1st triage group, are evacuated:
1. first of all
2. immediately after anti-shock measures and elimination of respiratory disorders
3. left in place or evacuated last.
21. The period during which organized provision of medical care to emergency victims must begin is:
22 The readiness period for emergency medical teams to leave is:
1 1 minute
2 4 minutes
23. The period of readiness for the departure of emergency medical care units during working hours is:
2. 30 minutes
3. no later than 1 hour
4. no later than 2 hours
24. The period of readiness for emergency medical assistance units to leave during non-working hours is:
2. 30 minutes
4. no later than 2 hours
5. no later than 6 hours
25. The emergency medical care team (medical and nursing) provides at stage 1;
1 specialized medical care
3. first medical aid
26 The emergency first aid team (EDMT) provides:
1 first aid
2. qualified medical care
3. specialized medical care
3 provides only care for victims
Questions for the section: Basics of cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
1 Terminal conditions include:
1. pre-agonal state
5 clinical death
6 biological death
2. Resuscitation is:
1 section of clinical medicine studying terminal conditions
Department 2 of a multidisciplinary hospital
3 practical actions aimed at restoring vital functions
1 Resuscitation must be carried out by:
1 entire adult population
2. only doctors and nurses of intensive care units
4.Resuscitation is indicated:
1 in each case of patient death
2 only for sudden death of young patients and children
2 for suddenly developing terminal conditions
5. The three main signs of clinical death are:
1. absence of pulse on the radial artery
2. absence of pulse in the carotid artery
3. lack of consciousness
4. lack of breathing
5. pupil dilation
6. The maximum duration of clinical death under normal conditions is:
1. 10-15 minutes
2. 5-6 minutes
3. 2-3 minutes
4. 1-2 minutes
7. Artificial cooling of the head (craniohypothermia):
1 accelerates the onset of biological death
2 slows down the onset of biological death
8.Early symptoms of biological death include:
1. corneal clouding
2. rigor mortis
3. cadaveric spots
4. pupil dilation
5. deformation of the pupils
9. Insufflation of air and compression of the chest during resuscitation carried out by one resuscitator are carried out in the following ratio:
10. Insufflation of air and compression of the chest during resuscitation carried out by two resuscitators are carried out in a ratio. ANSWERS:
11 Mandatory conditions for performing indirect cardiac massage are:
1. the presence of a hard base under the chest
2. presence of two resuscitators
3. position of the hands on the border between the middle and lower part of the sternum
4. placement of the resuscitator’s hands strictly along the middle
sternum lines
5. presence of a cushion under the shoulder blades
12. Indirect cardiac massage is performed:
1 at the border of the upper and middle third of the sternum
2. at the border of the middle and lower third of the sternum
3 1 cm above the xiphoid process
13. Compression of the chest during chest compressions in adults is performed with frequency;
1. 40-60 per minute
2. 60-80 per minute
3. 80 - 100 per minute
4 100 - 120 per minute
14 The appearance of a pulse in the carotid artery during chest compressions indicates:
1. about the effectiveness of resuscitation
2. about the correctness of cardiac massage
3. about reviving the patient
15. The necessary conditions for performing artificial ventilation are:
1. elimination of tongue retraction
2 duct application
3. sufficient volume of blown air
4. cushion under the patient’s shoulder blades
16. Movements of the patient’s chest during artificial ventilation indicate.
1 on the effectiveness of resuscitation
2 about the correctness of the performed mechanical ventilation
3 about reviving the patient
17 Signs of the effectiveness of resuscitation are:
1 pulsation on the carotid artery during cardiac massage
2 movements of the chest during mechanical ventilation
3 reduction of cyanosis
4 constriction of the pupils
5 pupil dilation
18 Effective resuscitation continues:
4. up to 1 hour
5. until vital activity is restored
19. Ineffective resuscitation continues.
4 to 1 hour
5 until recovery
20 Advancement of the lower jaw:
1 eliminates tongue retraction
3 restores airway patency at the level of the larynx and trachea
21. Air duct introduction:
1 eliminates tongue retraction
2 prevents aspiration of oropharyngeal contents
3 restores airway patency at the level of the larynx
1. In case of electrical injuries, assistance must begin;
1. with indirect cardiac massage
3. from precordial stroke
4. With the cessation of exposure to electric current
2. If a patient who has received an electrical injury is unconscious, but there are no visible respiratory or circulatory disorders, the nurse should:
1. make intramuscular cordiamine and caffeine
2. give ammonia a sniff
3. unbutton clothes
4. place the patient on his side
5. call a doctor
6. start oxygen inhalation
3. Electrical injuries of 1st degree of severity are characterized by:
1. loss of consciousness
1 respiratory and circulatory disorders
4. convulsive muscle contraction
5. clinical death
4. Patients with electrical injuries after assistance;
2 do not require further examination and treatment
2. hospitalized by ambulance
5. When drowning in cold water, the duration of clinical death:
1. shortened
2 lengthens
3 does not change
6. In the pre-reactive period, frostbite is typical
1. pale skin
2. lack of skin sensitivity
3. feeling of numbness
5 skin hyperemia
7. Application of a heat-insulating bandage to patients with frostbite requires:
I. in the pre-reactive period
3. in the reactive period
8. Apply the following to the burned surface:
1. bandage with furacillin
2. bandage with synthomycin emulsion
3. dry sterile dressing
4 bandage with tea soda solution
9. Cooling the burned surface with cold water is indicated:
I In the first minutes after injury
2. only for 1st degree burns
2 not shown
Questions for the section: Pre-hospital medical care for emergency conditions in the clinic of internal diseases. Features of providing assistance in emergency situations.
1. A typical attack of angina is characterized by:
1. retrosternal localization of pain
2. duration of pain for 15-20 minutes
3. duration of pain for 30-40 minutes
4. Duration of pain for 3-5 minutes
5. effect of nitroglycerin
6. irradiation of pain
2. The optimal position for the patient during an attack of angina is the position:
3. lying on your back with your legs elevated
4. lying on your back with the leg end down
3. Conditions under which nitroglycerin should be stored:
1. 4-6 degrees
2. darkness
3. sealed packaging
4. Contraindications for the use of nitroglycerin are:
1. low blood pressure
2. myocardial infarction
3 acute cerebrovascular accident
4. traumatic brain injury
5. hypertensive crisis
5. The main sign of a typical myocardial infarction is;
1 cold sweat and severe weakness
2. bradycardia or tachycardia
3. low blood pressure
4. chest pain lasting more than 20 minutes
6. First aid for a patient with acute myocardial infarction includes the following measures:
1. put the patient to bed
2. give nitroglycerin
3. ensure complete physical rest"
4. immediately hospitalize by passing transport
5 administer painkillers if possible
7. A patient with myocardial infarction in the acute period may develop the following complications:
2. acute heart failure
3. false acute abdomen
4. circulatory arrest
5. reactive pericarditis
8 Atypical forms of myocardial infarction include:
3 cerebral
4 asymptomatic
5 fainting
9.In the abdominal form of myocardial infarction, pain may be felt:
I in the epigastric region
I in the right hypochondrium
1 in the left hypochondrium
2 be encircling in nature
3 throughout the abdomen from below the navel
10 Cardiogenic shock is characterized by:
1. restless behavior of the patient
2. mental excitement
3. lethargy, lethargy
4. lowering blood pressure
5. pallor, cyanosis, cold sweat
11 If there is a sudden drop in blood pressure in a patient with myocardial infarction, the nurse should:
2. administer strophanthin intravenously
3. inject mezaton intramuscularly
4. administer cordiamine s.c.
5. lift the foot end
12 The clinic of cardiac asthma and pulmonary edema develops with:
1 acute right ventricular failure
2 acute left ventricular failure
3 acute vascular insufficiency
4 bronchial asthma
13. Acute circulatory failure can develop in patients
1. with acute myocardial infarction
2. with hypertensive crisis
3. with chronic circulatory failure
4. with shock
5. after recovering from a state of shock
14. The optimal position for a patient with acute left ventricular failure is the position:
1. lying down with the leg end raised
2. lying on your side
3. sitting or half-sitting.
15. The primary action for acute left ventricular failure is:
1. introduction of strophanthin in/in
2. injection of Laz X IM
3. giving nitroglycerin
4. application of venous tourniquets to the limbs
5. blood pressure measurement
16. During a cardiac asthma clinic in a patient with high blood pressure, the nurse should:
1. give the patient a sitting position
2. give nitroglycerin
3. start oxygen inhalation
4. administer strophanthin or corglycone intravenously
5. administer prednisolone intramuscularly
6. administer Lasix intramuscularly or give orally
17. Application of venous tourniquets for cardiac asthma is indicated:
1. with low blood pressure
2. with high blood pressure
3. with normal blood pressure
18. During a cardiac asthma clinic in a patient with low blood pressure, the nurse should:
1. give nitroglycerin
2. apply venous tourniquets to the limbs
3. start oxygen inhalation
4. administer strophanthin intravenously
5. inject lasix intramuscularly
6. administer prednisolone intramuscularly
19. Characteristic symptoms for an attack of bronchial asthma are:
1. very rapid breathing
2 inhalation is much longer than exhalation
3. exhalation is much longer than inhalation
4. pointed facial features, collapsed neck veins
5. puffy face, tense neck veins
Questions for the section: First aid for bleeding and hemorrhagic shock. Features of providing assistance to victims in a comatose state.
1 A comatose state is characterized by:
1 momentary loss of consciousness
2. lack of response to external stimuli
3 maximally dilated pupils
4 prolonged loss of consciousness
5 decreased reflexes
2 Acute respiratory disorders in comatose patients can be caused by:
1. depression of the respiratory center
2. retraction of the tongue
3. reflex spasm of the laryngeal muscles
4. aspiration of vomit
3 The optimal position for a patient in a coma is the position:
1 on the back with the head end down
2 on the back with the leg end down
4 on the stomach
4 A patient in a coma is given a stable lateral position in order to:
1 warnings for tongue retraction
2 warnings for aspiration of vomit
3 shock warnings
5 Patients in a comatose state with spinal injuries are transported in the position:
1 on the side on a regular stretcher
2 on the stomach on a regular stretcher
3 on the side on the shield
4 on the back on the shield
5 on the belly on the shield
6 For a patient with an unknown coma, the nurse should:
1. ensure airway patency
2. start oxygen inhalation
3. administer 20 ml of 40% glucose intravenously 4. administer strophanthin intravenously
5.introduce cordiamine and caffeine intramuscularly
7 Diabetic coma is characterized by symptoms:
1 dry skin
2 rare breathing
3 noisy deep breathing
3 prozerin
5 sodium thiosulfate
16.In case of severe carbon monoxide poisoning, the first priority action is
1. administration of bemegride
2. administration of cardiac glycosides
3. artificial ventilation
17. When bitten by a viper, you must:
1. apply a tourniquet
2. suck out the poison
3. make an incision in the skin and squeeze out the blood
4. immobilize the bitten limb
5. hospitalize
18. Removal of victims from the source of chemical contamination should be carried out by:
1. sanitary squads
2. honey ambulance personnel
3. rescue personnel
4. honey staff of specialized toxicology teams
1 The maximum time during which anaphylactic shock can develop is:
2. 15 minutes
3. 30 minutes
2.The basis of anaphylactic shock is:
1 depression of the central nervous system
2 decrease in circulating blood volume
3 sharp dilatation of blood vessels
3.If a patient develops anaphylactic shock, it is necessary:
1 apply a tourniquet
2 inject adrenaline
3 administer prednisolone
4 administer cardiac glycosides
5 if a terminal condition develops - perform resuscitation
4. A single dose of adrenaline for anaphylactic shock is:
3 0.25 - 0.5 mg
4 If necessary, the administration of adrenaline for anaphylactic shock is repeated:
1 in 1-2 minutes
2 in 5-10 minutes
3 in 20 minutes
5 Prednisolone for anaphylactic shock is administered in the dose:
7. Eufillin for anaphylactic shock is administered:
1. immediately after the administration of adrenaline and prednisolone
2. patients with bronchospasm with stable blood pressure
3 patients with shortness of breath and palpitations
8. If, after repeated administration of adrenaline, the pressure in a patient with anaphylactic shock remains low, it is necessary:
1. administer adrenaline in a dose of 1-2 ml intravenously.
2. administer adrenaline intracardially
3. start an intravenous infusion of polyglucin or rheopolyglucin
9. Cardiac glycosides are administered to patients with anaphylactic shock:
1. immediately after adrenaline and prednisolone
2. after stabilization of blood pressure in patients with persistent tachycardia
3. patients with persistent low blood pressure after repeated administration of adrenaline
10. Patients who have suffered anaphylactic shock need:
1. observed for 1 hour
2. in emergency hospitalization
3. calling a local doctor to your home
11. For angioedema, the priority action is:
1. injection of adrenaline
2. administration of prednisolone
3. administration of diuretics
1. anaphylactic shock
2. hives
3. Quincke's edema
4. contact dermatitis
1. Resuscitation is:
a) a section of clinical medicine that studies terminal conditions
b) department of a multidisciplinary hospital
c) practical actions aimed at restoring life activity
2. Resuscitation must be carried out by:
a) only doctors and nurses in intensive care units
b) all specialists with medical education
c) the entire adult population
3. Resuscitation is indicated:
a) in each case of death of the patient
b) only in case of sudden death of young patients and children
c) with suddenly developed terminal conditions
4. The three main signs of clinical death are:
a) absence of pulse on the radial artery
b) absence of pulse in the carotid artery
c) lack of consciousness
d) lack of breathing
d) pupil dilation
e) cyanosis
5. The maximum duration of clinical death under normal conditions is:
a) 10-15 min
b) 5-6 min
c) 2-3 min
d) 1-2 min
6. Artificial cooling of the head (craniohypothermia):
a) accelerates the onset of biological death
b) slows down the onset of biological death
7. Extreme symptoms of biological death include:
a) clouding of the cornea
b) rigor mortis
c) cadaveric spots
d) pupil dilation
d) deformation of the pupils
8. Insufflation of air and compression of the chest during resuscitation carried out by one resuscitator are carried out in the following ratio:
a) 2: 12-15
b) 1: 4-5
c) 1:15
d) 2: 10-12
9. Insufflation of air and compression of the chest during resuscitation carried out by two resuscitators are carried out in the following ratio:
a) 2: 12-15
b) 1: 4-5
c) 1:15
d) 2: 10-12
10. Indirect cardiac massage is performed:
a) at the border of the upper and middle third of the sternum
b) at the border of the middle and lower third of the sternum
c) 1 cm above the xiphoid process
11. Compression of the chest during chest compressions in adults is performed with frequency
a) 40-60 per minute
b) 60-80 per minute
c) 80-100 per minute
d) 100-120 per minute
12. The appearance of a pulse in the carotid artery during chest compressions indicates:
b) about the correctness of cardiac massage
c) about reviving the patient
13. Necessary conditions for performing artificial pulmonary ventilation are:
a) elimination of tongue retraction
b) use of an air duct
c) sufficient volume of blown air
d) cushion under the patient’s shoulder blades
14. Movements of the patient’s chest during artificial ventilation indicate:
a) about the effectiveness of resuscitation
b) about the correctness of artificial ventilation of the lungs
c) about reviving the patient
15. Signs of the effectiveness of resuscitation are:
a) pulsation on the carotid artery during cardiac massage
b) chest movements during mechanical ventilation
c) reduction of cyanosis
d) constriction of the pupils
d) pupil dilation
16. Effective resuscitation continues:
a) 5 min
b) 15 min
c) 30 min
d) up to 1 hour
d) until vital activity is restored
17. Ineffective resuscitation continues:
a) 5 min
b) 15 min
c) 30 min
d) up to 1 hour
d) until vital activity is restored
18. Advancement of the lower jaw:
a) eliminates tongue retraction
b) prevents aspiration of oropharyngeal contents
c) restores the patency of the airways at the level of the larynx and trachea
19. Air duct introduction:
a) eliminates tongue retraction
b) prevents aspiration of oropharyngeal contents
c) restores airway patency
20. In case of electrical injuries, assistance should begin:
a) with indirect cardiac massage
b) with artificial ventilation
c) from a precordial stroke
d) from the cessation of exposure to electric current
21. If a patient who has received an electrical injury is unconscious, but there are no visible respiratory or circulatory disorders, the nurse should:
a) make intramuscular cordiamine and caffeine
b) give ammonia to smell
c) unbutton your clothes
d) place the patient on his side
d) call a doctor
e) start oxygen inhalation
22. Electrical injuries of degree I are characterized by:
a) loss of consciousness
b) respiratory and circulatory disorders
c) convulsive muscle contraction
d) clinical death
23. Patients with electrical injuries after assistance:
a) are sent to see a local doctor
b) do not require further examination and treatment
c) are hospitalized by ambulance
24. When drowning in cold water, the duration of clinical death:
a) shortens
b) lengthens
c) does not change
25. In the pre-reactive period, frostbite is typical
a) pale skin
b) lack of skin sensitivity
c) pain
d) feeling of numbness
d) skin hyperemia
e) swelling
26. Application of a heat-insulating bandage to patients with frostbite requires:
a) in the pre-reactive period
b) in the reactive period
27. Apply to the burned surface:
a) bandage with furacillin
b) bandage with synthomycin emulsion
c) dry sterile dressing
d) bandage with a solution of tea soda
28. Cooling the burned surface with cold water is shown:
a) in the first minutes after injury
b) only for first degree burns
c) not shown
29. A typical attack of angina is characterized by:
a) retrosternal localization of pain
b) duration of pain for 15-20 minutes
c) duration of pain for 30-40 minutes
d) duration of pain for 3-5 minutes
e) effect of nitroglycerin
e) irradiation of pain
30. Conditions under which nitroglycerin should be stored:
a) temperature 4-6°C
b) darkness
c) sealed packaging
31. Contraindications for the use of nitroglycerin are:
b) myocardial infarction
c) acute cerebrovascular accident
d) traumatic brain injury
e) hypertensive crisis
32. The main sign of a typical myocardial infarction is:
a) cold sweat and severe weakness
b) bradycardia or tachycardia
c) low blood pressure
d) chest pain lasting more than 20 minutes
33. First aid for a patient with acute myocardial infarction includes the following measures:
a) lay down
b) give nitroglycerin
c) ensure complete physical rest
d) immediately hospitalize by passing transport
e) if possible, administer painkillers
34. A patient with myocardial infarction in the acute period may develop the following complications:
a) shock
b) acute heart failure
c) false acute abdomen
d) circulatory arrest
e) reactive pericarditis
35. Atypical forms of myocardial infarction include:
a) abdominal
b) asthmatic
c) cerebral
d) asymptomatic
d) fainting
36. In the abdominal form of myocardial infarction, pain can be felt:
a) in the epigastric region
b) in the right hypochondrium
c) in the left hypochondrium
d) be encircling in nature
d) all over the abdomen
e) below the navel
37. Cardiogenic shock is characterized by:
a) restless behavior of the patient
b) mental excitement
c) lethargy, lethargy
d) decrease in blood pressure
e) pallor, cyanosis
e) cold sweat
38. If there is a sudden drop in blood pressure in a patient with myocardial infarction, the nurse should:
a) administer adrenaline intravenously
b) administer strophanthin intravenously
c) administer mezaton intramuscularly
d) raise the foot end
e) administer cordiamine subcutaneously
39. The clinical picture of cardiac asthma and pulmonary edema develops with:
a) acute left ventricular failure
b) acute vascular insufficiency
c) bronchial asthma
d) acute right ventricular failure
40. Acute circulatory failure can develop in patients:
a) with acute myocardial infarction
b) with hypertensive crisis
c) with chronic circulatory failure
d) with shock
d) after recovering from a state of shock
41. The optimal position for a patient with acute left ventricular failure is the position:
a) lying with the leg end raised
b) lying on your side
c) sitting or half-sitting
42. The primary action for acute left ventricular failure is:
a) administration of strophanthin intravenously
b) injection of Lasix intramuscularly
c) giving nitroglycerin
d) application of venous tourniquets to the limbs
d) blood pressure measurement
43. During a cardiac asthma clinic in a patient with high blood pressure, the nurse should:
a) give the patient a sitting position
b) give nitroglycerin
d) administer strophanthin or corglycon intravenously
e) administer prednisolone intramuscularly
e) administer Lasix intramuscularly or give orally
44. Application of venous tourniquets for cardiac asthma is indicated:
a) with low blood pressure
b) with high blood pressure
c) with normal blood pressure
45. During a cardiac asthma clinic in a patient with low blood pressure, the nurse should:
a) give nitroglycerin
b) apply venous tourniquets to the limbs
c) start oxygen inhalation
e) administer Lasix intramuscularly
e) administer prednisolone intramuscularly
46. Characteristic symptoms for an attack of bronchial asthma are:
a) very rapid breathing
b) inhalation is much longer than exhalation
c) exhalation is much longer than inhalation
d) pointed facial features, collapsed neck veins
e) puffy face, tense neck veins
47. A comatose state is characterized by:
a) momentary loss of consciousness
b) lack of response to external stimuli
c) maximally dilated pupils
d) prolonged loss of consciousness
e) decreased reflexes
48. Acute respiratory disorders in comatose patients can be caused by:
a) depression of the respiratory center
b) retraction of the tongue
c) reflex spasm of the laryngeal muscles
d) aspiration of vomit
49. The optimal position for a patient in a coma is the position:
a) on the back with the head end down
b) on the back with the leg end down
c) on the side
d) on the stomach
50. A patient in a coma is given a stable lateral position in order to:
a) preventing tongue retraction
b) preventing aspiration of vomit
c) warning of shock
51. Patients in a comatose state with spinal injuries are transported in the position:
a) on the side on a regular stretcher
b) on the stomach on a regular stretcher
c) on the side on the shield
d) on the back on the shield
52. For a patient with an unknown coma, the nurse should:
a) ensure airway patency
b) start oxygen inhalation
c) administer intravenously 20 ml of 40% glucose
d) administer strophanthin intravenously
e) administer intramuscular cordiamine and caffeine
53. Diabetic coma is characterized by symptoms:
a) dry skin
b) rare breathing
c) frequent noisy breathing
d) the smell of acetone in the exhaled air
d) hard eyeballs
54. The hypoglycemic state is characterized by:
a) lethargy and apathy
b) excitement
c) dry skin
d) sweating
d) increased muscle tone
e) decreased muscle tone
55. Hypoglycemic coma is characterized by:
a) convulsions
b) dry skin
c) sweating
d) softening of the eyeballs
d) frequent noisy breathing
56. If a patient is in a hypoglycemic state, the nurse should:
a) inject cordiamine subcutaneously
b) inject 20 units of insulin
c) give a sweet drink inside
d) give a hydrochloric-alkaline solution inside
57. Shock is:
a) acute heart failure
b) acute cardiovascular failure
c) acute disturbance of peripheral circulation
d) acute pulmonary heart failure
58. Shock may be based on:
a) spasm of peripheral vessels
b) expansion of peripheral vessels
c) inhibition of the vasomotor center
d) decrease in circulating blood volume
59. The basis of painful (reflex) shock is:
a) decrease in circulating blood volume
b) inhibition of the vessel on the motor center
c) spasm of peripheral vessels
60. With painful shock, the first to develop is:
a) torpid phase of shock
b) erectile shock phase
61. The erectile phase of shock is characterized by:
a) apathy
b) cold, damp skin
c) excitement, anxiety
d) pale skin
d) increased heart rate and breathing
62. The torpid phase of shock is characterized by:
a) low blood pressure
b) pale skin
c) skin cyanosis
d) cold, damp skin
d) apathy
63. The optimal position for a patient with shock is:
a) side position
b) half-sitting position
c) position with raised limbs
64. Three main preventive anti-shock measures in trauma patients
a) administration of vasoconstrictor drugs
b) oxygen inhalation
c) pain relief
d) stopping external bleeding
e) immobilization of fractures
65. A hemostatic tourniquet is applied:
a) for arterial bleeding
b) with capillary bleeding
c) with venous bleeding
d) with parenchymal bleeding
66. In the cold season, a hemostatic tourniquet is applied:
a) for 15 minutes
b) for 30 minutes
c) for 1 hour
d) for 2 hours
67. The basis of hemorrhagic shock is:
a) inhibition of the vasomotor center
b) vasodilation
c) decrease in circulating blood volume
68. The absolute signs of bone fractures include:
a) pathological mobility
b) hemorrhage in the area of injury
c) shortening or deformation of a limb
d) bone crepitus
e) painful swelling in the area of injury
69. Relative signs of fractures include
a) pain in the area of injury
b) painful swelling
c) hemorrhage in the area of injury
d) crepitation
70. If the bones of the forearm are fractured, a splint is applied:
a) from the wrist joint to the upper third of the shoulder
b) from the fingertips to the upper third of the shoulder
c) from the base of the fingers to the upper third of the shoulder
71. In case of a fracture of the humerus, a splint is applied:
a) from the fingers to the shoulder blade on the sore side
b) from the fingers to the shoulder blade on the healthy side
c) from the wrist joint to the scapula on the healthy side
72. For open fractures, transport immobilization is carried out:
a) first of all
b) secondarily after stopping bleeding
c) thirdly after stopping the bleeding and applying a bandage
73. In case of a fracture of the leg bones, a splint is applied:
a) from fingertips to knee
b) from the fingertips to the upper third of the thigh
c) from the ankle joint to the upper third of the thigh
74. In case of a hip fracture, a splint is applied:
a) from the fingertips to the hip joint
b) from fingertips to armpit
c) from the lower third of the leg to the armpit
75. When a rib is fractured, the optimal position for the patient is:
a) lying on the healthy side
b) lying on the sore side
c) sitting
d) lying on your back
76. The absolute signs of a penetrating chest injury are:
a) shortness of breath
b) pallor and cyanosis
c) gaping wound
d) noise of air in the wound during inhalation and exhalation
e) subcutaneous emphysema
77. Application of an airtight bandage for a penetrating wound of the chest is carried out:
a) directly on the wound
b) on top of a cotton-gauze napkin
78. In case of a penetrating injury to the abdomen with prolapse of organs, the nurse should:
a) reposition prolapsed organs
b) apply a bandage to the wound
c) give a hot drink inside
d) administer an anesthetic
79. Characteristic symptoms of traumatic brain injury are:
a) excited state after restoration of consciousness
b) headache, dizziness after regaining consciousness
c) retrograde amnesia
d) convulsions
e) loss of consciousness at the time of injury
80. In case of traumatic brain injury, the victim must:
a) administration of painkillers
b) immobilization of the head during transportation
c) monitoring the functions of breathing and circulation
d) emergency hospitalization
81. Optimal position of a patient with a traumatic brain injury in the absence of symptoms of shock
a) position with the leg end raised
b) position with the foot end lowered
c) position with the head end down
82. For penetrating wounds of the eyeball, a bandage is applied:
a) on the sore eye
b) both eyes
c) bandaging is not indicated
83. The territory where a toxic substance has been released into the environment and its evaporation into the atmosphere continues is called:
a) a source of chemical contamination
b) zone of chemical contamination
84. The area exposed to vapors of a toxic substance is called:
a) a source of chemical contamination
b) zone of chemical contamination
85. Gastric lavage in case of poisoning with acids and alkalis is performed:
a) after pain relief using the reflex method
b) contraindicated
c) after anesthesia with a probe method
86. Gastric lavage in case of poisoning with acids and alkalis is performed:
a) neutralizing solutions
b) water at room temperature
c) warm water
87. The most effective way to remove poison from the stomach is:
a) when washing using the reflex method
b) when washing with a probe method
88. For high-quality gastric lavage using the tube method, it is necessary:
a) 1 liter of water
b) 2 liters of water
c) 5 liters of water
d) 10 liters of water
e) 15 liters of water
89. If highly toxic substances come into contact with your skin, you must:
a) wipe the skin with a damp cloth
b) immerse in a container of water
c) wash with running water
90. Patients with acute poisoning are hospitalized:
a) in case of serious condition of the patient
b) in cases where it was not possible to rinse the stomach
c) when the patient is unconscious
d) in all cases of acute poisoning
91. If there is ammonia vapor in the atmosphere, the respiratory tract must be protected:
a) a cotton-gauze bandage moistened with a solution of baking soda
b) a cotton-gauze bandage moistened with a solution of acetic or citric acid
c) a cotton-gauze bandage moistened with a solution of ethyl alcohol
92. If there is ammonia vapor in the atmosphere, it is necessary to move:
a) in the upper floors of buildings
b) outside
c) to the lower floors and basements
93. If there is chlorine vapor in the atmosphere, you must move:
a) in the upper floors of buildings
b) outside
c) to the lower floors and basements
94. If there is chlorine vapor in the atmosphere, the respiratory tract must be protected:
a) a cotton-gauze bandage soaked in a solution of baking soda
b) a cotton-gauze bandage soaked in a solution of acetic acid
c) cotton-gauze bandage moistened with boiled water
95. Chlorine and ammonia vapors cause:
a) excitement and euphoria
b) irritation of the upper respiratory tract
c) lacrimation
d) laryngospasm
e) toxic pulmonary edema
96. The antidote for poisoning with organophosphorus compounds is:
a) magnesium sulfate
b) atropine
c) roserine
d) sodium thiosulfate
97. Mandatory conditions for performing indirect cardiac massage are:
a) the presence of a hard base under the chest
b) position of the hands in the middle of the sternum
1. The doctrine of the mechanisms of disease development is called:
1). Etiology;
2). Pathogenesis;
3). Symptom;
4). Syndrome.
2. The body’s protective-adapted reaction that occurs in response to the action of pyrogenic stimuli is called:
1). Fever;
2). Hyperthermia;
3). Hypothermia;
4). Heatstroke.
3. Myocardial infarction occurs as a result of:
1). Mechanical tissue damage;
2). Temperature effects;
3). Acute circulatory disorders;
4). Exposure to chemicals.
4. The most dangerous manifestation of an immediate allergy is called:
1). Hives;
2). Bronchospasm;
3). Anaphylactic shock;
4). Quincke's edema.
5. The most common complication of hypertension:
1). Hypertensive crisis;
2). Primary wrinkled buds;
3). Heart disease;
4). Bronchospasm.
6. Pathogenesis of cardiac asthma:
1). Bronchial spasm;
2). Decreased myocardial tone
3). Decreased blood pressure;
4). Spasm of cerebral vessels.
7. Specify a dangerous complication of gastric ulcer:
1). Perforation of the stomach wall;
3). Violation of digestive processes;
4). Pain in the epigastric region.
8. Dangerous pulmonary hemorrhage occurs when:
1). Bronchopneumonia;
2). Bronchial asthma;
3). Pulmonary tuberculosis;
4). Acute bronchitis.
9. Pain behind the sternum, radiating to the left arm and left shoulder blade, is a sign:
1). Angina attack;
2). Biliary colic;
3). Renal colic;
4). An attack of bronchial asthma.
10. An attack of angina is stopped:
1). Paracetamol;
2). Nitroglycerin;
3). Papaverine;
4). Dibazol.
11. Indicate the parenteral method of introducing drugs into the body:
1). Inhalation;
2). Oral;
3). Sublingual;
4). Rectal.
12. Which method of drug administration should be chosen if the patient is in a terminal condition and peripheral circulation is impaired:
1). Subcutaneous;
2). Intramuscular;
3). Rectal;
4). Intravenous.
13. A bandage is applied to the elbow and knee joints:
1). Circular;
2). Spiral;
3). Eight-shaped;
4). Turtle.
14. A/D indicators 160-90 Hg. Art. - this is:
1). The norm;
2). Hypotension;
3). Extrasystole;
4). Hypertension.
15. In case of acute vascular insufficiency (fainting, collapse), the patient should be placed in the following position:
1). Semi-seated;
2). Smooth horizontal;
3). Horizontal with head raised;
4). Horizontal with raised legs.
16. To prevent aspiration of vomit, place the patient in the following position:
1). On the back;
2). On the side;
3). On the stomach;
4). Semi-seated.
17. Rapidly developing shock:
1). Traumatic;
2). Hemorrhagic;
3). Anaphylactic;
4). Blood transfusion.
18. Where does assistance in case of drowning begin:
1). Artificial respiration;
2). Indirect cardiac massage;
3). Removing water from the victim’s respiratory tract;
4). Warming.
19. To carry out artificial ventilation of the lungs, it is necessary first of all:
1). Throw back the victim’s head with the lower jaw moving forward;
2). Cover the victim's nose;
3). Make a test air injection;
4). Press on the sternum.
20. Indicate an undoubted sign of biological death:
1). Lack of breathing;
2). Absence of heartbeat;
3). Pupil dilation;
4). Cloudiness of the cornea.
21. To restore cardiac activity, the following is administered intracardially:
1). Calcium chloride solution;
2). Cardiamine;
3). Caffeine benzonate sodium solution;
4). 0.1% solution of adrenaline hydrochloride.
22. The absolute signs of a bone fracture include:
1). Pain at the fracture site;
2). Limitation of joint movements;
3). Pathological bone mobility;
4). Presence of hematoma.
23. Sign of arterial bleeding:
1). Slow flow of blood from the wound;
2). Dark cherry blood color;
3). Strong pulsating stream of blood;
4). Hematoma formation.
24. Indications for applying a tourniquet:
1). Venous bleeding;
2). Arterial bleeding;
3). Internal bleeding;
4). Bleeding into the lumen of a hollow organ.
25. The main sign of dislocation:
2). Changing the shape of the joint;
3). Joint swelling;
4). Inability to move the joint.
26. The optimal period for providing first medical aid (FAM) after an injury:
1). 0.5 hours;
3). 1,5 hour;
27. An occlusive dressing is applied when:
1) Closed rib fracture;
2) Open fracture of the ribs;
3) Chest contusion;
4) Fracture of the collarbone.
28. An epileptic seizure is characterized by:
1). Rare breathing, pale skin;
2). Absence or sharp weakening of the body’s response to external stimuli;
3). Sudden loss of consciousness;
4). Smell of acetone from the mouth.
29. Characteristics of suffocation:
1). Strong headache;
2). Severe cough, bluishness and swelling of the face;
3). Restlessness, sweating, trembling;
4). Heartache.
30. Stopping bleeding helps:
1). Novocaine;
2). Heparin;
3). Vikasol;
4). Aspirin.
31. First aid for loss of consciousness:
1). Absolute peace;
2). Absolute rest, head turned to one side;
3). Absolute rest, head turned to one side, further actions depend on the cause that caused the loss of consciousness;
4). Cold on the head.
32. Help with fainting:
1). The patient is given a horizontal position, lowering the head slightly below the body;
2). Give ammonia to smell, wipe your face with cold water;
3). The patient is placed in a horizontal position, given ammonia to smell, and the face is wiped with cold water;
4). Hot sweet tea inside.
33. First aid for hypoglycemic coma:
1). Inject insulin urgently;
2). Give a couple of lumps of sugar, candy, a piece of bread;
3). Urgently deliver to Leningrad State Technical University;
4). Perform an indirect cardiac massage.
34. When pressing the carotid artery with fingers, it is pressed to:
2). Transverse process of the VI cervical vertebra;
3). The middle of the sternocleidomastoid muscle;
4). To the collarbone.
35. For emergency assistance with nosebleeds, you should:
2). Bend the patient's head forward, put cold on the bridge of the nose, make a tamponade;
3). Immediately place the patient on his back without a pillow, put cold on the bridge of the nose, and apply tamponade;
4). Apply heat to the bridge of your nose.
36. Tactics of a person providing assistance at the pre-medical stage for a chest injury if a wounding object protrudes from the wound:
1). Removal of the wounding object, tight bandage;
2). Applying a bandage without removing the wounding object;
3). Removal of the wounding object, tight wound tamponade, bandage;
4). Application of an occlusive dressing.
37. When providing assistance for a first-degree burn, it is first necessary to treat the burned surface:
1). 96% ethyl alcohol;
2). Cold water until numb;
3). Sterile novocaine;
4). Grease.
38. Principles of providing care for chemical burns:
1). If possible, neutralize substances that cause burns, rinse with cold water;
2). Rinse with cold water for an hour;
3). Analgesics, starting from the second degree - dry aseptic dressings without treating the burned surface;
4). Sprinkle with talcum powder.
39. The group of especially dangerous infections includes:
2). Angina;
3). Cholera;
40. Medical product for the prevention of FOV lesions in AI - 2:
2). Sulfadimethoxine;
3). Cystamine;
4). Tetracycline.
41. Principles of providing emergency care for severe electrical injury:
1). Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation and, if possible, take measures to remove the victim from the current source;
2). Release the victim from contact with the current source, observing personal precautions, and only then begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation;
3). Bury in the ground;
4). Pour water over it.
42. An arterial tourniquet is applied to a maximum of:
1). 0,5- 1 hour;
2). 1.5-2 hours;
3). 6-8 hours;
4). 3-5 hours.
43. Asepsis is:
1). A set of measures aimed at destroying microbes in the wound, creating development conditions unfavorable for microbes in the wound;
2). A set of measures aimed at preventing the entry of microbes into the wound;
4). Action of antibiotics.
44. Antiseptics are:
1). A set of measures aimed at destroying microbes in the wound, creating conditions in the wound that are unfavorable for the development of microbes and their penetration deeper;
3). A set of measures aimed at the complete destruction of microbes and their spores;
4). Material used during operations and vaccinations for drying wounds and the surgical field, tamponade of wounds and applying various dressings.
45. Sterilization ~ is:
1). A set of measures aimed at destroying microbes in the wound;
2). A set of measures aimed at preventing microbes from entering the wound;
3). A set of measures aimed at the complete destruction of microbes and their spores;
4). Removal of dead crushed tissue, blood clots, and foreign bodies from the wound.
46. Great importance is attached to the timely provision of:
1). First medical and pre-medical aid;
2). Pre-medical and medical care;
3). Medical and qualified assistance;
4). Specialized assistance.
47. The most common way to stop venous bleeding:
1). Application of a tourniquet;
2). Wound tamponade;
3). Tight pressure bandage;
4). Twist.
48. Adsorption is:
1). Absorption of poisonous, potent, poisonous substances due to interaction with chemically active substances;
2). Absorption of gases and vapors by the surface of a solid;
3). Changing the rate of chemical reactions;
4). Solubility of SDYAV.
49. Radioprotective drugs include:
1). Antibiotics;
2). Radioprotectors (Cystamine);
3). Cardiac glycosides;
4). Glucocorticoids.
50. The most important type of medical care during the isolation phase:
1). First aid;
2). Specialized assistance;
3). First medical aid;
4). Qualified medical doctor.
Module 1. Life safety.
Topic 1. Life safety in medical organizations.
1. Medical workers in the performance of their professional duties may be exposed to the harmful effects of factors:
A) physical, chemical, biological, psychophysiological
B) physiological, biochemical, anthropological
B) physical, radiation, chemical, dynamic
D) psychophysiological, social, natural, anthropogenic
B) 15 chest compressions
B) 2 breaths
9. The criterion for the effectiveness of indirect cardiac massage is:
A) the appearance of a pulse in the carotid arteries
B) pupil dilation
B) appearance of cyanotic spots
D) aspiration of gastric contents
10. Restoration of airway patency must be performed as the first stage of cardiopulmonary resuscitation in case of:
A) the occurrence of clinical death as a result of aspiration of foreign bodies
B) atrial fibrillation
B) syncopal drowning
D) suspicion of primary cardiac arrest
11. The ratio of the frequency of inspiration to the frequency of chest compressions during resuscitation of victims over 20 years of age is:
A) 2:30
D) 10:20
Topic 6. First aid in case of accidents and sudden illnesses.
1. A second degree burn is characterized by:
A) preservation of sensitivity, presence of blisters
B) hyperemia
B) decreased sensitivity
D) formation of blisters with hemorrhagic contents
2. Burns caused by multiple factors (steam, chemical, high temperature, etc.) are:
A) combined
B) combined
B) adjacent
D) multiple
3. Indicate the type of drowning, which is most characterized by cyanosis of the skin and mucous membranes and abundant foam from the mouth and nose:
A) true
B) false
B) syncopal
D) mixed
4. Indicate the main route of penetration of toxic combustion products and other gaseous toxic substances:
A) respiratory tract
B) through the digestive tract
D) mucous membranes
5. When providing first aid for poisoning, gastric lavage is performed to:
A) remove from the body the part of the poison that has not yet been absorbed into the blood;
B) stop further entry of poison into the body;
C) bind or neutralize the poison and hinder its further absorption;
D) neutralize the absorbed part of the poison;
D) ensure the implementation of basic vital functions.
6. Local changes under the influence of electric current manifest themselves in the form of:
A) burns
B) seizures
B) laryngospasm
D) respiratory arrest
7. When vomiting with blood, providing first aid is necessary:
A) lay the victim on his side, put cold on his stomach, call an ambulance team B) give plenty of warm drinks, wrap
B) give the victim a sitting position
D) give plenty of cold drinks
8. In case of an allergic reaction to a bee sting, accompanied by Quincke's edema, first of all it is necessary:
A) give an antihistamine, for example, diazolin
B) calm the victim and call an ambulance
C) lay the victim on his side, wrap him up
D) try to remove the sting from the wound
9. For a snake bite, first aid includes:
A) ensuring rest of the damaged area, and prompt delivery of the victim to a medical facility
B) cauterization of the wound
C) applying a tourniquet above the wound
D) applying a tourniquet below the wound
10. When providing first aid, the following is used to bind a toxic substance that has entered the gastrointestinal tract:
A) enterosorption, for example, activated carbon, etc.
B) cleansing enema
B) blood transfusion
D) gastric lavage
11. When providing first aid for frostbite, you must:
A) heat in warm water at a temperature of up to 320 C for 20 minutes
B) lubricate frostbitten areas of the body with fat or rich cream
C) rub frostbitten areas of the body with snow
D) warm up at a temperature of 40-450C
12. Burns accompanied by injury under the influence of other damaging factors (wound, bruise, fracture, etc.) are:
A) combined
B) combined
B) adjacent
D) multiple
13. When providing first aid for burns, you must:
A) irrigate the burn surface with cold water or apply a cold object or ice pack B) perform mechanical cleaning of the burn surface from foreign bodies, including remnants of clothing
C) apply a bandage with ointment or cream, if they are not available, treat with oil
D) treat the burn surface with an antiseptic
Module 3. National security.
Topic 1. National security of Russia.
1. The national interests of Russia are the totality of the interests of the individual, society and the state in...
A) economic, domestic political, social, international, military and other spheres.
B) the growth of private property and the development of market relations.
D) in the innovation policy of the state, in the development of nanotechnology
2. The interests of the individual are...
A) real provision of constitutional rights and freedoms, personal safety, in improving the quality and standard of living, in physical, spiritual and intellectual development.
B) protection of private property.
C) expansion of paid health care and education services
D) state innovation policy in the development of nanotechnology.
3. The interests of society are...
A) strengthening democracy, social harmony, creative activity of the population and the spiritual revival of the country.
B) the growth of private entrepreneurship.
C) expansion of paid health care and education services.
D) state innovation policy in the development of nanotechnology
4. The basic national interests of the state are:
A) state sovereignty, territorial integrity, socio-political stability, constitutional order, etc.
B) private enterprise and the market.
C) paid services in the fields of healthcare and education.
D) innovation policy, development of nanotechnology.
5. One of the external threats to Russia’s national security includes:
A) territorial claims against the Russian Federation, the threat of secession of certain territories from the Russian Federation.
B) illegal trafficking of weapons on Russian territory.
C) an attempt to forcibly change the constitutional order.
D) the activities of separatist movements in the Russian Federation.
6. One of the internal threats to Russia’s national security includes:
A) an attempt to forcibly change the constitutional order.
B) deployment of hostile groups of forces and means.
C) expansion of military blocs to the detriment of the military security of the Russian Federation.
D) demonstration of military force near the borders of the Russian Federation
7. Types of threats to the national security of the Russian Federation:
A) external, internal, cross-border.
B) demographic, social.
B) political, military.
D) environmental, man-made.
8. Russia’s national interests in the defense sector are to ensure...
A) security of the individual, society and state.
B) development of the country's economy, modernization.
B) development of nanotechnology.
D) the safety of Russian citizens living abroad.
Topic 2. Modern wars and armed conflicts.
1. Military conflicts are divided into the following types by scale:
A) armed conflict, local war, regional war, large-scale war.
B) nuclear missile war and conventional war.
C) just war, unjust war.
D) war in aerospace, war in the waters of the world's oceans.
2. Local war is war:
A) between two or more states, but on a limited territory, pursuing limited military-political goals.
D) a war between coalitions of states, in which radical military-political goals will be pursued.
3. Regional war is:
A) a war involving two or more states of the same region, waged with the use of both conventional and nuclear weapons, pursuing important goals.
B) with the participation of two or more states for the complete destruction of each other
C) pursuing the goal of damaging the enemy’s sovereignty.
D) a war between coalitions of states in which radical military-political goals will be pursued
4. Large-scale war is:
A) a war between coalitions of states, in which radical military-political goals will be pursued.
B) with the participation of two or more states for the complete destruction of each other
C) pursuing the goal of damaging the enemy’s sovereignty.
5. Military conflicts based on military-political goals are divided into:
A) just and unjust wars in accordance with the requirements of the UN Charter.
B) long-term or fleeting
C) complete or partial deprivation of the enemy’s sovereignty.
D) eliminating a political opponent or forcing political cooperation.
6. Military conflicts, based on the means used, are divided into wars with...
A) the use of weapons of mass destruction or conventional weapons.
B) the use of sabotage methods and regular troops.
C) using only artillery and missile weapons.
D) the use of ground, air and ship weapons.
7. The military organization of the state is:
A) the totality of state and military control bodies, the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation, other troops, military formations and bodies.
B) a combination of state and local authorities
self-government.
B) Ground Forces, Air Force, Navy.
D) troop groups and infrastructure of military districts of the Russian Federation.
8. The legal basis of the Military Doctrine is:
A) The Constitution of the Russian Federation, generally recognized principles and norms of international law, other legal acts of the Russian Federation in the field of defense.
B) Criminal Code of the Russian Federation.
C) normative acts of the Constitutional Court of the Russian Federation.
D) general military regulations of the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation.
Topic 3. The main damaging factors of modern types of weapons.
1. Conventional weapons include:
A) small arms, artillery, missile, bomber, mine, torpedo.
B) traumatic, electroshock, pneumatic.
C) sports, hunting, self-defense weapons.
D) combat, smooth-bore, rifled.
2. Weapons of mass destruction include:
A) nuclear, chemical, biological (stuffed with biological warfare formulations).
B) missiles, bombs, shells, mines, torpedoes.
C) kinetic, cumulative, high-explosive fragmentation, incendiary, volumetric detonating.
D) blasting, incendiary, tracer.
3. Non-lethal weapons are weapons...
A) the use of which is capable of neutralizing or depriving the enemy of the opportunity to conduct combat operations without loss of manpower.
B) mass destruction, the effect of which is based on the use of pathogenic properties of biological warfare agents.
C) whose action is based on the toxic properties of chemicals.
D) the use of which is impossible in the Air Force.
4. The main damaging factors of modern weapons for the body are...
A) physical, chemical, biological.
B) blasting, implosive
B) thermal, shock.
D) penetrating, non-penetrating.
5. The source of the lesion is...
A) a territory with a population affected by the use of conventional weapons and weapons of mass destruction.
B) the purpose of active combat operations.
C) the scale of target destruction.
D) the direction of the military operation.
6. The affected area is the territory...
A) in the lesion, identified according to an independent classification characteristic of the lesion.
B) closed to unauthorized presence.
C) where medical and evacuation measures are necessary.
D) for carrying out special events of Civil Defense.
7. The damaging factors of nuclear weapons include:
A) light radiation, shock wave, penetrating radiation, radioactive contamination, electromagnetic pulse.
B) microwave radiation, electromagnetic influence
vesicant effect, generally toxic effect.
B) laser action, anti-friction action, electrical conductive action.
8. Penetrating radiation as a damaging factor of nuclear weapons is:
A) flux of alpha, beta, gamma radiation and neutrons.
D) contamination by radioactive fallout resulting from a nuclear explosion.
9. Radioactive contamination as a damaging factor of nuclear weapons is:
A) contamination by radioactive fallout resulting from a nuclear explosion.
B) a front of atmospheric excess pressure of enormous destructive force.
C) high intensity radiant energy flow.
D) flux of alpha, beta, gamma radiation and neutrons.
10. Electromagnetic pulse, as a damaging factor of nuclear weapons, is:
A) electromotive force induced during an explosion in electronic and electrical devices.
B) a front of atmospheric excess pressure of enormous destructive force.
C) flux of alpha, beta and gamma radiation.
D) high intensity radiant energy flow
11. The focus of bacteriological damage is determined...
A) the border of security measures (quarantine) in a certain territory based on the results bacteriological reconnaissance in case of threat of bacteriological contamination.
B) the size of the territory of occurrence of infectious diseases among the population.
C) preventive restriction of the territory of categorized objects.
D) the size of the territory contaminated as a result of the spraying (use) of bacterial (biological) agents.
12. The damaging effect of electromagnetic non-lethal weapons is due to:
A) the influence of thermal fields on human internal organs.
B) toxic properties of chemicals
C) pathogenic properties of biological warfare agents.
D) intranuclear energy.
13. The damaging effect of psychotropic weapons is due to:
A) exposure to weak electromagnetic fields of certain
B) frequencies to the human subconscious to control it from the outside.
B) intranuclear energy.
D) pathogenic properties of biological warfare agents.
D) the influence of thermal fields on humans.
14. General losses in the affected area are...
A) the total number of wounded and killed (dead), including missing persons.
B) the amount of material damage.
B) dead military personnel and civilians.
D) military personnel and the population with permanent disabilities.
15. Sanitary losses in the affected area are:
A) wounded, sick and injured in the affected area.
16. Irreversible losses in the affected area are:
A) the total number of dead (dead) and missing.
B) civilians with permanent disabilities.
C) those injured and sick from poor sanitary conditions.
D) this is the number of disabled people among military personnel.
17. Combined damage is the result of exposure to a person...
A) several damaging factors of ammunition at the same time (nuclear explosion).
B) damaging factors of several ammunition.
C) one damaging factor of ammunition with damage to two or more anatomical areas (organs).
D) a bullet or shrapnel affecting one anatomical area of the body (organ).
18. Combined damage is the result of exposure to a person...
A) bullets or fragments affecting two or more anatomical areas (organs).
B) the damaging factor of ammunition affecting one anatomical area of the body.
C) several damaging factors of ammunition.
D) several bullets or fragments.
19. Multiple lesions are the result of exposure to a person...
A) several bullets or fragments into a certain anatomical area (organ).
B) several damaging factors of ammunition.
B) one ammunition with a massive lesion
D) one damaging factor of ammunition with damage to several wounded.
20. A single lesion is the result of simultaneous exposure to a person...
A) a fragment or bullet damaging one anatomical area of the body (organ).
B) several damaging factors of an ammunition explosion at the same time.
C) several fragments of ammunition affecting one anatomical area of the body (organ).
D) one damaging factor of ammunition.
Topic 4. Fundamentals of mobilization preparation and mobilization of healthcare.
1. The Supreme Commander-in-Chief of the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation is:
A) President of the Russian Federation
B) Chief of the General Staff of the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation.
B) Minister of Defense of the Russian Federation.
D) Chairman of the Government of the Russian Federation.
2. The goals and objectives of mobilization preparation and mobilization in the Russian Federation are determined by:
A) President of the Russian Federation.
B) Government of the Russian Federation.
B) Minister of Defense of the Russian Federation.
D) Federation Council of the Russian Federation.
3. Directly manages mobilization preparation and mobilization in the Russian Federation:
A) Government of the Russian Federation.
B) Chief of the General Staff.
B) Military commissariat.
D) Federation Council of the Russian Federation.
4. Principles of mobilization preparation and mobilization:
A) centralized leadership, timeliness, planning and control, complexity and mutual coordination.
B) decentralized leadership with delegation of authority to local areas.
B) centralized leadership and publicity.
D) democracy and transparency for NATO representatives.
5. One of the tasks of mobilization preparation and mobilization is:
A) creation and training of special formations intended for transfer to the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation upon the announcement of mobilization.
B) operational equipment of the territory of the Russian Federation.
C) the development of science and modern technologies.
D) international cooperation for joint defense.
6. Mobilization preparation of healthcare is a set of activities carried out...
A) in peacetime for the advance preparation of healthcare for medical support of the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation and the population in wartime.
B) in wartime for medical provision of the civilian population.
D) in wartime to support the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation.
7. Health care mobilization is a set of activities carried out:
A) in wartime, to organize the work of medical management bodies, institutions and special health care units for medical support of the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation and the population.
B) in peacetime for medical provision of military personnel and the population.
C) to transfer healthcare to work in conditions of the use of weapons of mass destruction.
D) carried out in wartime for medical provision of the civilian population.
8. Main directions of health care activities in wartime:
A) medical support for the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation and civilians affected during hostilities.
B) carrying out sanitary treatment of personnel and disinfection.
C) carrying out sanitary, hygienic and anti-epidemic measures.
D) carrying out sanitary educational work and promoting a healthy lifestyle.
9. Special healthcare units include:
A) observation points, surgical beds, rear healthcare hospitals and their management bodies.
B) medical stations, medical companies.
B) sanitary-epidemiological teams, sanitary-epidemiological teams.
D) district and garrison hospitals of the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation.
10. The governing bodies of special healthcare units are intended to manage:
A) rear healthcare hospitals, operational beds and observation stations.
B) medical supplies and medicines.
C) food and clothing supplies to healthcare institutions.
D) food and clothing supplies to healthcare institutions.
D) sanitary-hygienic and anti-epidemic institutions.
11. Operating beds are intended for:
A) Strengthening the front hospital base in operational directions of combat operations as medical institutions.
B) placement of operated patients.
C) use in day hospitals as additional beds.
D) use at observation points.
12. Rear healthcare hospitals are intended for...
A) wounded and sick military personnel, providing them with specialized care, treatment and rehabilitation with treatment periods exceeding 30 days.
B) the affected civilian population.
C) temporary isolation and observation of military contingents.
D) treatment of patients among the civilian population in the rear of the country.
13. Observation points are intended for...
A) temporary isolation and observation of military contingents traveling along railway, water and air routes in case of epidemic troubles.
B) wounded and sick military personnel.
B) the affected civilian population.
D) temporary isolation and observation of the civilian population in case of epidemic troubles.
14. Personnel of military echelons are subject to observation if among them there are:
A) one case of a particularly dangerous infection.
B) 3% of those sick with ARVI and influenza.
C) 1% of patients with acute gastrointestinal disorder.
D) 1% of homogeneous, slightly contagious infectious diseases.
