Online testing in neurology. Neuroscience Proficiency Test. A patient with amnestic aphasia has impaired ability
TESTS IN PRIVATE NEUROLOGY.
TOPIC 1. VASCULAR DISEASES OF THE BRAIN.
1. The vertebrobasilar and carotid systems of cerebral blood flow are anastomosed through the artery:
1. front connecting
2. rear connecting
3. ophthalmic
4. meninges
2. Anterior communicating artery - anastomosis between arteries:
1. carotid and basilar
2. two forebrain
3. two vertebral
4. middle and anterior brain
3. The circle of Willis can provide adequate cerebral blood flow during arterial thrombosis
1. midbrain
2. posterior medulla
3. internal sleep
4. external carotid
4. Pressure in large vessels of the arterial circle of the cerebrum:
1. higher in the carotid system
2. higher in the vertebrobasilar system
3. same
5. Blood in large cerebral vessels under physiological conditions:
1. mixed in the basilar system
2. mixed in the carotid system
3.does not mix
6. The constancy of cerebral blood flow is ensured by:
1. system of autoregulation of cerebral circulation
2. autonomic nervous system
3. brain stem
7. Cerebral blood flow in a healthy person does not depend on general hemodynamics when blood pressure fluctuates between:
1. 100 - 200 mmHg.
2. 60 - 200 mmHg.
3. 60 - 250 mmHg.
8. When blood pressure rises, cerebral vessels:
1. taper
2. do not change the diameter of the lumen
3. expand
9. When the oxygen content in arterial blood decreases, cerebral vessels:
1. taper
2. expand
3. do not change the diameter of the lumen
10. When the carbon dioxide content in the blood decreases, the cerebral vessels:
1. taper
2. do not change the diameter of the lumen
3. expand
11. Onset of hemorrhagic stroke as a hematoma:
1. sudden
2. increase in symptoms over the course of hours
3. flickering symptoms
12. Hemorrhage in the brain develops, as a rule:
1. at night while sleeping
2. in the morning after sleep
3. during the day active work
13. Headache due to cerebral hemorrhage:
1. not typical
2. sudden acute
3. moderate
14. Meningeal symptoms with cerebral hemorrhage occur:
1. almost always
3. do not meet
15. The skin of a patient with cerebral hemorrhage more often:
1. pale
2. regular color
3. hyperemic
16. Liquor for hemorrhagic stroke:
1. bloody
2. opalescent
3. colorless
17. ECHO-EG for hemorrhage in the brain parenchyma /hematoma type/:
1. M-ECHO without displacement
2. M-ECHO displacement is more than 3 mm
3. M-ECHO displacement is more than 14 mm Answer: 2
18. In a blood test for hemorrhagic stroke:
2. leukopenia
3. leukocytosis
19. The most common picture of the fundus in ischemic stroke:
2. retinal hemorrhages
3. retinal angiosclerosis
4. congestive optic disc
20. Consciousness during ischemic stroke is more often:
3. not broken
21. The circle of Willis includes arteries:
1. forebrain
2. front connecting
3. eye
4. midbrain
5. hindbrain
6. rear connecting
7. superior cerebellar
Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5, 6.
22. The density of the capillary network in the brain is proportional to:
1. number of nerve cells
2. surface area of nerve cells
3. intensity of functioning of nerve cells
Answer: 2, 3.
23. Focal symptoms characteristic of thrombosis of the right middle cerebral artery:
1. sensory aphasia
2. left-sided central hemiparesis
3. left-sided hemianopsia
4. swallowing disorders
5. right-sided hemihypesthesia
Answer: 2, 3.
24. Focal symptoms characteristic of thrombosis of the anterior cerebral artery:
1. visual impairment
2. central leg paresis
3. central paresis of the arm
4. mental disorders
Answer: 2, 4.
25. Focal symptoms characteristic of thrombosis of the posterior cerebral artery:
1. homonymous hemianopsia
2. visual agnosia
3. central hemiparesis
4. motor aphasia
5. comatose state
Answer: 1, 2.
26. Focal symptoms characteristic of vertebral artery thrombosis:
1. alternating syndrome
3. nystagmus
4. headache
5. meningeal symptoms
Answer: 1, 2, 3.
27. Focal symptoms characteristic of basilar artery thrombosis:
1. damage to the cranial nerves
2. tetraparesis
3. disorder of consciousness
Answer: 1, 2.
28. Etiological factors ischemic stroke:
1. hypertension
2. atherosclerosis
3. heart rhythm disturbances
4. systemic vasculitis
5. blood diseases
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
29. Etiological factors of cerebral hemorrhage:
1. hypertension
2. arteriovenous malformations
3. stenosis of intracranial vessels
4. systemic vasculitis
5. blood diseases
6. embolism in ischemic heart disease
7. secondary renal hypertension
Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5, 7.
30. Hemorrhagic strokes include:
1. thrombotic strokes
2. parenchymal hemorrhages
3. intrathecal hemorrhages
4. ventricular hemorrhages
5. embolic strokes
6. combined forms of hemorrhages
Answer: 2, 3, 4, 6.
31. Hemorrhage in the brain develops as a result of:
1. rupture of the vessel
2. thrombosis
3. diapedesis
Answer: 1, 3.
32. Symptoms characteristic of hemorrhagic stroke of the hematoma type:
1. sudden onset
2. flickering symptoms
3. impaired consciousness
4. meningeal symptoms
5. high blood pressure
Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5.
33. Symptoms characteristic of subarachnoid hemorrhage:
1. sudden headache
2. hemiparesis
3. gradual increase in symptoms
4. meningeal symptoms
Answer: 1, 4.
34. Symptoms characteristic of parenchymal hemorrhage:
1. disturbance of consciousness
2. hemiplegia
3. increased blood pressure
4. flickering symptoms
5. gaze paralysis
6. Kernig's sign
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 5, 6.
35. Ischemic non-embolic stroke is characterized by its onset:
1. acute
2. gradual /several hours/
3. in the morning after sleep
4. after psycho-emotional stress
5. after taking a hot bath
Answer: 2, 3, 5.
36. General cerebral symptoms characteristic of ischemic stroke:
1. headache
2. hemiparesis
3. nausea
4. transient disturbances vision
5. rapid development of coma
6. meningeal symptoms
Answer: 1, 3.
37. Changes in the cerebrospinal fluid characteristic of ischemic stroke:
1. lymphocytic pleocytosis
2. number of lymphocytes - 1-5 in 1 µl
3. opalescence
4. amount of protein - 0.2-0.4 g/l
5. amount of protein - 0.9-1.2 g/l
Answer: 2, 4.
38. Most informative diagnostic methods examinations for ischemic stroke:
1. electroencephalography
2. Angiography of cerebral vessels
3. lumbar puncture
4. computed tomography
5. ventriculography
6. pneumoencephalography
Answer: 2, 3, 4.
39. Drugs of choice for relieving cerebral edema in ischemic stroke:
1. steroid hormones
2. glycerin
3. furosemide
Answer: 1, 2, 3.
40. Antibiotics for ischemic stroke are prescribed for:
1. treatment of the underlying disease
2. prevention of pneumonia
3. prevention of bedsores
4. prevention of uroinfection
Answer: 2, 4.
41. To improve the rheological properties of blood during ischemic stroke, it is advisable to use:
1. rheopolyglucin
2. aminophylline
3. trentala
4. aspirin
5. fibrinogen
6. vikasola
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4.
42. Tactics for managing patients with hemorrhagic stroke in the acute period:
1. elevated head position
2. lowered head position
3. ensuring cross-country ability respiratory tract
4. fight against cerebral edema
5. fight pulmonary edema
6. prevention of pneumonia
7. normalization of blood pressure
8. prescription of drugs that reduce blood clotting
Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.
43. Drugs indicated for the treatment of patients with hemorrhagic stroke:
1. dibazole, clofelline
2. antibiotics
3. analgin
4. heparin
5. ascorbic acid
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 5.
44. Tactics for managing patients with hemorrhagic stroke in the recovery period:
1. extension of bed rest after 2 weeks
2. extension of bed rest after 4-8 weeks
3. prescription of nootropic drugs
4. prescription of anticoagulants
5. massage of paralyzed limbs
Answer: 2, 3, 5, 6.
45. For the treatment of ischemic nonthrombotic stroke, it is most advisable to use:
1. direct anticoagulants
2. antiplatelet agents
3. anticoagulants indirect action
4. drugs that improve brain metabolism
Answer: 2, 4
ADD:
46. Ischemic strokes are classified into:
1. thrombotic
2. ________________
3._________________
Answer: non-thrombotic, embolic.
47. The diagnosis of transient ischemic attack is made if all focal symptoms regress within ______________.
Answer: 24 hours.
48. The diagnosis of transient ischemic attack is made if
within 24 hours all _______________ symptoms regress. Answer: focal.
49. In the clinic of ischemic stroke, ________________ symptoms prevail over ________________ symptoms.
Answer: focal over cerebral.
50. Acute cerebrovascular accidents are classified:
1. __________ ____________ ____________ .
2. minor stroke
3. lacunar stroke
4. ___________ ____________ .
5. ___________ ____________ Answer: transient ischemic attack
ischemic stroke
hemorrhagic stroke
51. The medial and superior outer surface of the frontal and parietal lobes, the anterior part of the corpus callosum are supplied with blood by the ___________ ___________ artery.
Answer: forebrain.
52. The convexital surface of the frontal, parietal and temporal lobes, the internal capsule, and subcortical nodes are supplied with blood by the ___________ ____________ artery.
Answer: midbrain.
53. The occipital lobes, the basal surface of the temporal lobes are supplied with blood by the ______________ _____________ artery.
Answer: posterior brain.
54. General cerebral complaints, emotional lability, decreased memory and attention, sleep disturbances, focal neurological microsymptoms characterize the clinic of the ______________ _____________ ___ stage.
Answer: stage 1 dyscirculatory encephalopathy.
55. General cerebral complaints, decreased criticism of one’s condition, dementia, the presence of pyramidal, pseudobulbar, akinetic-rigid syndromes, an increase in clinical symptoms with age characterize the clinic of the _____________ ____________ ____ stage.
Answer: dyscirculatory encephalopathy stage 3
ESTABLISH MATCH;
56. Vascular basin: Symptoms of damage:
1. internal carotid artery A. central hemiparesis with predominance in the arm
2. middle cerebral artery B. opticopyramidal syndrome
3. anterior cerebral artery B. central hemiparesis with predominance in the leg
Answer: 1-B 2-A 3-B
57. Vascular basin: Symptoms of damage:
1. middle cerebral artery A. central tetraparesis, 2-sided pore-
cranial nerve activity
2. posterior cerebral artery B. homonymous hemianopsia
3. basilar artery B. central hemiparesis, hemihypesthesia
Answer: 1- B 2- B 3- A
58. Vascular basin: Symptoms of damage:
1. left middle cerebral artery A. right-sided hemianopsia
2. left posterior cerebral artery B. motor aphasia
3. left cerebellar artery B. left-sided hemiataxia
Answer: 1- B 2- A 3- C
59. Vascular basin: Symptoms of damage:
1. right cerebellar artery A. spastic hypertension of the left extremities
2. right middle cerebral artery B. hypotension of the right extremities
3. right internal carotid artery B. transient blindness of the right eye Answer: 1- B 2- A 3- C
60. Vascular basin: Symptoms of damage:
1. vertebral artery A. mental disorders
2. middle cerebral artery B. alternating syndrome
3. anterior cerebral artery B. internal capsule lesion syndrome
Answer: 1- B 2- C 3- A
61. Disease: Symptoms:
1. subarachnoid hemorrhage A. gradual onset
2. ischemic thrombotic stroke B. sudden onset
B. meningeal symptoms
G. hemiparesis
D. hemianesthesia
E. increased body temperature
G. bloody or xanthochromic cerebrospinal fluid
Z. hypodensity zone on CT scan Answer: 1- B, C, E, G. 2- A, D, E, H.
62. Stages of dyscirculatory encephalopathy: Symptoms:
1. first A. emotional lability
2. third B. dementia
B. sleep disturbance
G. akinetic-rigid syndrome
D. pseudo bulbar syndrome
E. anisoreflexia
G. symptoms of oral automatism
H. reduction of criticism Answer: 1- A, B, E, G, G. 2- B, C, D, E, F, G, Z.
63. Disease: Symptoms:
1. ischemic stroke A. hypertension syndrome
2. brain tumor B. acute onset
B. hyperdense zone on CT
D. hypodensity zone on CT scan
D. increase in the amount of protein in the cerebrospinal fluid
Answer: 1- B, D. 2- A, B, D.
64. Disease: Symptoms:
1. parenchymal-subarachnoid A. headache
hemorrhage B. vomiting
2. subarachnoid hemorrhage B. hemiplegia
D. meningeal symptoms
D. aphasia
E. hemianopsia Answer: 1- A, B, C, D, E, E. 2- A, B, G.
65. Disease: Symptoms:
1. hemorrhagic stroke A. gradual onset
2. ischemic thrombotic stroke B. flickering symptoms
B. acute onset
D. meningeal symptoms
D. hemiplegia
E. bloody cerebrospinal fluid Answer: 1- C, D, D, E. 2- A, B, D.
66. Pathophysiological stages of ischemic stroke:
Thrombosis
Vessel stenosis
Slowing blood flow
Hypoxic tissue ischemia
Answer: 3, 1, 2, 4, 5.
67. Sequence of origin of the arteries of the carotid system:
Internal sleepy
Middle cerebral
General sleepiness
Orbital
Forebrain Answer: 2, 4, 1, 3, 5.
68. Anatomical sequence of arteries forming the Circle of Willis:
Basilar
Rear connecting
Vertebral
Middle cerebral
Front connecting
Posterior brain
Forebrain Answer: 2, 4, 1, 5, 7, 3, 6.
69. Frequency of occurrence of variants of the course of ischemic stroke / from the most frequent /:
With a gradual increase in symptoms over several hours
Apoplectiform development of symptoms
Pseudotumorous development of symptoms Answer: 1, 2, 3.
70. Frequency of etiological factors for the development of hemorrhagic stroke /from the most frequent/:
Vascular atherosclerosis
Vessel aneurysm
Diapedesis in somatic pathology Answer: 1, 3, 2, 4.
TOPIC 2. TRANO BRAIN INJURY.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS.
71. Symptoms of a concussion are typical:
1. prolonged disorder of consciousness /more than 30 minutes/
2. headache
3. nausea, vomiting
4. meningeal symptoms
Answer: 2.3.
72. Symptoms of a brain contusion are typical:
1. short-term disorder of consciousness /3-5 minutes/
2. focal symptoms of brain damage
3. meningeal symptoms
4. fractures of the skull bones on craniograms Answer: 2,3,4.
73. For compression of the brain by traumatic intracranial hematoma
typical symptoms:
1. disorder of consciousness
2. presence of a “light gap”
3. M-ECHO displacement during ECHO-EG
4. bradycardia Answer: 1,2,3,4.
74. Infectious complications of open craniocerebral injury:
1. meningitis
2. brain abscess
3. osteomyelitis
4. carotid-cavernous anastomosis Answer: 1,2,3.
75. A fracture of the base of the skull in the area of the anterior cranial fossa is characterized by:
symptoms:
1. Nazarite
2. "late" glasses
3. psychomotor agitation
4. peripheral damage to the facial nerve
Answer: 1,2,3.
ESTABLISH MATCH;
76. Disease: Symptoms:
1. concussion A. meningeal
2. brain contusion B. focal neurological symptoms
B. disorder of consciousness
D. fractures of the skull bones Answer: 1 - C. 2 - A, B, C, D.
77. Complications of acute TBI: Symptoms:
1. meningitis A. meningeal
2. carotid-cavernous anastomosis B. pulsating noise in the head
B. exophthalmos
D. neutrophilic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid Answer: 1 - A, D 2 - B, C.
78. Disease: Symptoms:
1. brain contusion A. disorder of consciousness
2. compression of the brain B. focal neurological symptoms
B. presence of a “light” gap
D. anisocoria Answer: 1 - A, B 2 - A, B, C, D.
79. Fracture of the base of the skull: Symptoms:
1. anterior cranial fossa A. nazarite
2. middle cranial fossa B. otorrhea
B. "late" glasses
D. damage to the facial nerve Answer: 1 - A, B. 2 - B, G.
80. Consequences of TBI: Symptoms:
1. hydrocephalus A. frequent headaches
2. convulsive syndrome B. seizures
B. decreased vision
D. vomiting Answer: 1 - A, B, D. 2 - A, B.
ADD:
81. The time from the moment of receiving a TBI to the onset of symptoms of brain compression is called ____________ ____________.
Answer: lucid interval
82. TBI, in which the dura mater is mechanically damaged, is called _____________.
Answer: penetrating.
83. TBI, in which damage to the skin and bone coincide in projection, is called ______________.
Answer: open
84. A complication of TBI, in which neutrophilic pleocytosis appears in the cerebrospinal fluid, is called ______________.
Answer: meningitis
85. A complication of TBI, in which pulsating exophthalmos appears and noise in the head is called ___________ - ____________ _____________.
Answer: carotid-cavernous anastomosis
ESTABLISH SEQUENCE:
86. Examination of a patient diagnosed with cerebral compression:
Angiography
Neurological examination
ECHO-EG Answer: 3,4,1,2.
87. Examination of a patient diagnosed with carotid-cavernous anastomosis:
Angiography
Neurological examination
Auscultation of the head
Examination by an ophthalmologist Answer: 3,4,5,2,1.
88. Craniogram assessments:
Presence of radiological signs of cracks
Labeling of radiographs
Assessing correct head positioning
Craniographic features intracranial hypertension Answer: 2,3,4,1.
89. Formulations of neurosurgical diagnosis for acute TBI:
Brain damage
Bone damage
Type of injury / open or closed /
Presence of complications Answer: 3,2,1,4.
90. Development of pathophysiological mechanisms of severe brain contusion:
Brain swelling
Appearance of an area of necrosis
Hypoxia
Increased intracranial pressure
Brain dislocation Answer: 2,5,1,4,3,6.
TOPIC 3. BRAIN TUMORS.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
91. Symptoms characteristic of frontal lobe tumors:
1. hemiparesis
2. motor aphasia
3. Jacksonian motor seizures
4. sensitivity disorders Answer: 1,2,3.
92. Symptoms characteristic of tumors of the temporal lobe:
1. auditory, olfactory hallucinations
2. motor aphasia
3. homonymous hemianopsia /or quadrant/.
4. sensory aphasia Answer: 1,3,4.
93. Symptoms characteristic of pituitary adenoma:
1. acromegaly
2. bitemporal hemianopsia
3. hemiparesis
4. hearing impairment Answer: 1.2.
94. Symptoms characteristic of cerebellar tumors:
1. muscle hypotonia in the limbs on the affected side
3. impaired sense of smell
4. congestive optic discs Answer: 1,2,4.
95. Symptoms characteristic of neuroma of the 8th pair:
1. noise in the ear
2. hearing loss
3. hemiparesis
4. hemihypesthesia Answer: 1,2.
MATCH:
96. Tumor localization: Tumor type:
1. supratentorial A. pituitary adenoma
2. subtentorial B. neuroma 8 pairs
B. cerebellar astrocytoma
D. craniopharyngioma Answer: 1 - A, G. 2 - B, V.
97. Tumor localization: Histological structure:
1. intracerebral A. glioblastoma
2. extracerebral B. astrocytoma
B. meningioma
D. ependymoma Answer: 1 - A, B, D. 2 - V.
98. Localization of the tumor: Histological structure:
1. extraventricular A. ependymoma
2. intraventricular B. meningioma
B. pituitary adenoma
D. neuroma Answer: 1 - B, C, D. 2 - A.
99. Syndromes: Clinical manifestations:
1. chiasmal A. bitemporal hemianopsia
2. dislocation B. bradycardia
B. primary optic nerve atrophy
D. breathing disorders Answer: 1 - A, B. 2 - B, G.
100. Type of syndrome: Clinical manifestations:
1. cerebral hypertension A. paroxysmal night headaches
syndrome B. congestive optic discs
2. focal symptoms B. disorder of consciousness
D. acromegaly Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2- G.
ADD:
101. A syndrome in which atrophy of the optic disc in one eye is combined with a congestive disc in the other occurs when there is a tumor on the _____________ surface of the ______________ lobe.
Answer: basal surface of the frontal lobe.
102. A change in the fundus of the eye that occurs after congestive discs and leads to blindness is called ____________ ______________ disc.
Answer: secondary atrophy.
103. Impaired consciousness and the appearance of vital bulbar disturbances in a patient with hypertension syndrome indicate the occurrence of _____________ syndrome. Answer: dislocation.
104. The syndrome that occurs when a tumor occludes the cerebrospinal fluid pathways is called _______________.
Answer: hypertensive.
105. For emergency treatment of hypertensive-dislocation syndrome, _______________ ____________ /minor neurosurgical intervention/ is used.
Answer: ventricular drainage.
ESTABLISH SEQUENCE:
106. Examination of a patient diagnosed with a subtentorial tumor:
Angiography
Neurological examination Answer: 3,2,1.
107. Medical measures for hypertension syndrome:
Intravenous dehydration therapy
Bed rest
Monitoring pulse, blood pressure, respiration
Neurosurgical examination of the patient
Liquor shunt operations
Answer: 3,1,2,4,5.
108. Occurrence of symptoms in supratentorial tumors:
General cerebral symptoms
Focal symptoms
Secondary optic nerve atrophy Answer: 2,1,3.
109. Occurrence of symptoms in tumors of the cerebellopontine angle /neurinma of the 8th pair/.
Paresis of facial muscles
Hearing loss
Noise in the ear
Loss of facial sensitivity and development of convergent strabismus
The appearance of cerebellar symptoms Answer: 3,2,1,4,5.
110. Therapeutic measures for a patient with a malignant brain tumor:
Partial removal tumors
Elimination of intracranial hypertension
Chemotherapy and radiation therapy
Histological examination of the tumor Answer: 2,1,4,3.
TOPIC 4. SPINAL CORD TUMORS.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
111. Symptoms characteristic of extramedullary tumors:
1. impaired pain sensitivity
2. radicular pain
3. presence of a block of the subarachnoid space
4. hearing impairment
Answer: 1,2,3.
112. Symptoms characteristic of an extramedullary tumor:
1. Brown-Séquard syndrome
2. complete transverse lesion of the spinal cord
3. radicular pain
4. protein-cell dissociation in the cerebrospinal fluid Answer: 1,2,3,4.
113. Intramedullary tumors include:
1. meningioma
2. neuroma
3. ependymoma
Answer: 3.4.
114. Symptoms characteristic of the initial stage of intramedullary tumor at the C5-C8 level:
1. impairment of surface sensitivity, initially in the proximal parts
2. flaccid paresis, paralysis
3. spastic paresis, paralysis
4. trophic disorders
5. pelvic disorders Answer: 1,2,4.
115. Symptoms characteristic of a tumor of the upper thoracic spinal cord: /extramedullary/:
1. pain when tapping the spinous processes of the vertebrae
2. tetraparesis
3. lower paraparesis
4. dysfunction pelvic organs Answer: 1,3,4.
MATCH:
116. Disease: Symptoms:
1. tumor of the upper cervical region A. pain when moving the head
spinal cord B. pain radiating to the upper extremities
2. tumor of the lower cervical region B. flaccid paresis of the upper extremities and central
spinal cord lower
D. spastic tetraparesis Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - B, V.
117. Disease: Symptoms:
thoracic region B. violation of pelvic functions
2. tumor of the cauda equina B. lower spastic paraparesis
G. hypoesthesia in the perineum and lower extremities
D. inferior flaccid paraparesis
/often asymmetrical/
Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2 - A, B, D, D.
118. Disease: Symptoms:
1. extramedullary tumor A. radicular pain
B. progressive course
2. radiculopathy vertebrogen- B. reversibility of symptoms with conservative
treatment
G. protein-cell dissociation in the cerebrospinal fluid
D. spread of sensory disorders from bottom to top
Answer: 1 - A, B, D, D. 2 - A, B.
119. Disease: Symptoms:
1. intramedullary tumor A. signs of dysmorphogenesis
B.d duration of the disease is 5-10 years
2. syringomyelia B. rapid increase in symptoms of the lesion
diameter of the spinal cord
G.vegetative-trophic disorders
D. flaccid paresis of the limbs Answer: 1 - C, D, E. 2 - A, B, D, D.
120. Disease: Histological structure:
1. primary tumor of the spinal A. neuroma
brain B. glioblastoma
2. secondary tumor of the spinal V. lipoma
brain G. cancer metastases
Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2 - G.
ADD:
121. A change in the cerebrospinal fluid due to a spinal cord tumor is called ________- _________ _____________. Answer: protein-cell dissociation.
122. The X-ray symptom of atrophy of the roots of the arches and an increase in the distance between them as a result of tumor pressure is called the symptom _________ - _________ / by last name / Answer: Ellsberg - Dyck.
123. A progressive disease of the spinal cord, characterized by the proliferation of glia and the formation of cavities in the gray matter, is called _________________.
Answer: syringomyelia.
124. X-ray examination of the patency of the subarachnoid space of the spinal cord is called ____________ ______________.
Answer: contrast myelography.
125. Spinal cord tumors are classified according to location into extramedullary and _____________.
Answer: intramedullary.
ESTABLISH SEQUENCE:
126. Examination of a patient with a spinal cord tumor:
X-ray of the spine
Neurological examination
Lumbar puncture with CSF tests. Answer: 2,4,1,3.
127. Development of symptoms with extramedullary tumor:
Brown-Séquard syndrome
Radicular stage
Stage of complete transverse lesion of the spinal cord Answer: 2,1,3.
128. Development of symptoms with intramedullary tumor:
The appearance of conductive sensitivity disorders
Complete transverse spinal cord syndrome
Segmental sensitivity disorders of the dissociated type Answer: 2,3,1.
129. Diagnosis formulations for a spinal cord tumor:
Primary or secondary
Level of spinal cord injury
Extra- or intramedullary Answer: 1,3,2.
130. Carrying out the Queckenstedt test:
CSF analysis
Lumbar puncture
Compression of the jugular veins
Measuring the initial level of cerebrospinal fluid pressure
2nd pressure measurement
3rd pressure measurement
Stopping the pressure on jugular veins Answer: 7,1,3,2,4,6,5.
TOPIC 5. INFECTIOUS DISEASES OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM.
ENCEPHALITIS, MENINGITIS.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
131. Symptoms characteristic of tick-borne encephalitis:
1. central hemiparesis
2. flaccid paresis of the upper limbs
3. conduction sensitivity disorders
4. "dangling head"
5. bulbar disorders
6. convergent strabismus
7. sleep disorder
8. lymphocytic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid
9. Kozhevnikov epilepsy Answer: 2,4,5,8,9.
132. Symptoms characteristic of the acute stage of epidemic encephalitis:
1. bulbar syndrome
2. accommodation paresis, diplopia
3. pathological drowsiness
4. autonomic disorders /hypersalivation, hyperhidrosis, hiccups/
5. Intermittent urinary incontinence
6. reverse Argyle-Robertson syndrome Answer: 2,3,4,6.
133. Symptoms characteristic of the chronic stage of epidemic encephalitis:
1. paralysis of limbs
2. hypokinesia
3. headache
4. muscle rigidity
5. static tremor
6. bilateral ptosis
7. epileptic seizures
8. impaired consciousness Answer: 2,4,5.
134. Symptoms characteristic of mosquito encephalitis:
1. seasonality
2. peripheral paralysis of the upper limbs
3. epileptic seizures
4. impaired consciousness
5. sharp headache, vomiting
6. increase in body temperature up to 40 degrees
7.meningeal symptoms
8. paralysis of accommodation Answer: 1,3,4,5,6,7.
135. Symptoms characteristic of acute myelitis:
1. general infectious syndrome
2. disorder of consciousness
3. radicular pain
4. psychomotor agitation, delirium
5. paresis of the lower extremities
6. conduction sensitivity disorders
7. pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid Answer: 1,3,5,6,7.
136. Symptoms characteristic of tuberculous meningitis:
1. presence of a primary focus in the lungs
2. acute onset
3. symptoms of intoxication
4. prodromal period 2-3 weeks
5. neutrophilic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid
6. lymphocytic pleocytosis in cerebrospinal fluid with a high protein content
7. increased sugar content in the cerebrospinal fluid Answer: 1,3,4,6.
137. The basic treatment regimen for tuberculous meningitis includes:
1. isoniazid 15 mg/kg body weight per day
2. rifampicin 600 mg per day
3. penicillin 12 million units per day
4. streptomycin 1g per day
5. seduxen up to 3 tablets. per day Answer: 1,2,4.
138. The causative agents of primary serous meningitis include:
1. Coxsackie enterovirus
2. polio virus
3. mumps virus
4. enterovirus ECHO
5. streptococcus Answer: 1.4.
139. Secondary purulent meningitis can develop due to:
1. penetrating injury to the skull
2. purulent otitis media
4. meningococcemia
5. bronchiectasis Answer: 1,2,3,5.
140. Symptoms characteristic of meningitis:
1.general hyperesthesia
2. headache
4. normal composition of the cerebrospinal fluid
5. Stiff neck
6. distribution infectious process on brain matter Answer: 1,2,3,5.
MATCH:
141. Disease: Symptoms:
1. tick-borne encephalitis A. incubation period 10-14 days
2. epidemic encephalitis B. seasonality of the disease
B. pathological drowsiness
G. oculomotor disorders
D. bulbar syndrome
E. peripheral paresis of the upper extremities Answer: 1 - A, B, D, E. 2 - V, G.
142. Chronic form of encephalitis: Symptoms:
1. tick-borne A. Kozhevnikovskaya epilepsy
2. epidemic B. flaccid paresis of the arms
B. akinetic-rigid syndrome
D. choreathetosis, gaze convulsion Answer: 1 - A, B. 2 - C, D.
143. Disease: Symptoms:
1. tick-borne encephalitis A. pathogen-filterable neurotropic
2. mosquito encephalitis virus
B. acute onset, high fever
B. decreased muscle tone, muscle atrophy
D. disturbance of speech, phonation, swallowing
D. hemorrhagic rash Answer: 1- A, B, C, D. 2- A, B, D.
144. Disease: Symptoms:
1. tick-borne encephalitis A. pathogen-filterable neurotropic
2. epidemic encephalitis virus
B. pathogen unknown
The transmission route is transmissible, nutritional
G. bulbar syndrome
D. oculolethargic syndrome
E. diagnostics using RSK, RN, RTGA
Answer: 1- A, B, D, E. 2- B, D.
145. Disease: Symptoms:
1. tick-borne encephalitis A. tetraparesis or lower paraparesis
2. acute myelitis B. flaccid paresis of the upper limbs
B. conductive hypoesthesia
D. dysfunction of the pelvic organs
D. trophic disorders
E. “hanging head” Answer: 1- B, E. 2- A, B, D, D.
146. Disease: Symptoms:
1. tuberculous meningitis A. acute onset
2. meningococcal meningitis B. subacute onset
B. meningeal symptoms
D. damage to the cranial nerves
D. neutrophilic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid
E. lymphocytic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid Answer: 1 - B, C, D, E. 2 - A, B, D, D.
ADD:
151. The syndrome, expressed in the absence of a reaction of the pupils to accommodation with convergence with a preserved reaction of the pupils to light, is characteristic of: _________________ encephalitis.
Answer: epidemic.
152. Routes of infection into the human body with tick-borne encephalitis:
AND _____________ .
Answer: transmissible and nutritional.
153. Pathomorphological changes in tick-borne encephalitis mainly develop in ____________; ___________ brain, _____________ ____________
spinal cord.
Answer: shells; brain stem, cervical enlargement of the spinal cord.
154. In Russia, mosquito encephalitis is common in __________ __________ and _____________ region.
Answer: Far East and Primorsky Territory.
155. The typical clinical picture of the chronic stage of epidemic encephalitis is called ______________ syndrome /last name/.
Answer: Parkinson's syndrome.
156 A symptom in which the doctor cannot bend the patient’s head forward is called __________ ___________ ___________
Answer: Stiff neck
157. A symptom in which the doctor cannot straighten the patient’s leg in knee joint, pre-bent at the hip and knee, is called __________/surname/
Answer: Kernig
158. A symptom in which the patient’s legs bend at the knees and hip joints when bending the head forward, it is called ______________ ____________ /surname/. Answer: Brudzinsky upper.
159. Neutrophilic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid is a sign of ___________ meningitis.
Answer: purulent
160. An increase in the number of cells in the cerebrospinal fluid is called ______________.
Answer: pleocytosis
ESTABLISH SEQUENCE:
161. Development of clinical symptoms in tick-borne encephalitis:
- "hanging head"
Headache, vomiting
Flaccid plegia of the upper limbs
Increased body temperature / 38-39 degrees /
Meningeal symptoms Answer: 5,2,4,1,3.
162. Medical measures for viral encephalitis:
Exercise therapy, massage
Detoxification and dehydration therapy
Etiological therapy /acyclovir, Y-globulin/
Metabolic drugs, vitamins, HBOT
Bed rest Answer: 5,3,2,4,1.
163. Medical measures in the treatment of the chronic stage of epidemic encephalitis:
Preparations based on L-DOPA
Stereotactic surgery
Central anticholinergics /cyclodol, norakin/ Answer: 3, 2, 4, 1.
164. Frequency of occurrence of clinical forms of tick-borne encephalitis at present
/from the most frequent/:
Poliomyelitis
Meningeal
Polyradiculoneuritic Answer: 2,1,3.
165. Frequency of occurrence of viral encephalitis in the Western European region of Russia / from the most frequent /:
Kleshchevoy
Komariny
Epidemic Economo
Answer: 1,3,2.
TOPIC 6. INJURY OF THE SPINE AND SPINAL CORD.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
166. Symptoms characteristic of spinal cord contusion:
1. reversibility of neurological symptoms within a few hours
2. persistent motor and sensory disorders
3. dysfunction of the pelvic organs
4. violation of the patency of the subarachnoid space
Answer: 2.3.
167. Symptoms characteristic of spinal cord compression:
1. increasing motor and sensory disorders
2. violation of the patency of the subarachnoid space
3. fractures of vertebral bodies and arches
4. absence of focal neurological symptoms Answer: 1,2,3.
168. Symptoms characteristic of half the diameter of the spinal cord:
1. peripheral paraparesis
2. rapidly developing trophic disorders
3. central paresis on the affected side
4. disturbances in pain and temperature sensitivity on the opposite side
5. dysfunction of the pelvic organs
6. violation of deep sensitivity on the affected side Answer: 3,4,6.
169. Symptoms of spinal cord injury at the level of the thoracic segments:
1. central lower paraparesis
2. flaccid lower paraplegia
4. diaphragmatic paralysis Answer: 1.3.
170. Symptoms of spinal cord damage at the level of the lumbar enlargement /L1-S2/:
1. peripheral lower paraparesis
2. central lower paraparesis
3. Loss of sensation from the Pupart ligament
4. disappearance of the knee and Achilles reflexes Answer: 1,3,4.
MATCH:
171. Disease: Symptoms:
1.spinal cord concussion A. transient sensory disturbances
2.spinal cord contusion B. paresthesia
B. persistent paralysis of the limbs
D. dysfunction of the pelvic organs Answer: 1 - A, B. 2 - C, D.
172. Level of spinal cord injury Symptoms:
1. upper cervical region /C1-C4/ A. spastic tetraplegia
2. lumbar thickening /L1-S2/ B. dysfunction of the pelvic organs
B. breathing disorder
D. flaccid lower paraparesis Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2 - B, G.
173. Level of spinal cord injury: Symptoms:
1. lower cervical region /C5-C8/ A. flaccid paralysis of the arms
2. thoracic region /T3-T12/ B. spastic paralysis of the legs
B. Claude-Bernard-Horner syndrome
D. dysfunction of the pelvic organs Answer: 1 - A, B, C, D. 2 - B, G.
174. Disease: Symptoms:
1. compression of the spinal cord A. obstruction of patency
subarachnoid space
2. spinal cord concussion B. protein-cell dissociation
in the liquor
B. fractures of vertebral bodies with displacement
D. reversibility of neurological symptoms within a few hours
Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2 - G.
175. X-ray signs of spinal injury:
spinal canal deformities:
1. there is deformation A. damage ligamentous apparatus
2. no deformation B. dislocation, subluxation of the vertebrae
V. compression, comminuted fractures vertebral bodies
D. combined fractures of the bodies and arches Answer: 1 - B, C, D. 2 - A.
ADD:
176. Hemorrhage in Gray matter the spinal cord is called _________________.
Answer: hematomyelia.
177. Damage to the spine and spinal cord with disruption of the integrity of the wall of the spinal canal is called __________________. Answer: penetrating.
178. Suppression of reflex functions in response to spinal cord injury is called
_______________ _________ .
Answer: spinal shock.
179. A study in which the patency of the subarachnoid space of the spinal cord is assessed by changes in cerebrospinal fluid pressure is called _________________ ___________.
Answer: liquorodynamic test
180. Damage to half the diameter of the spinal cord is called ________ - ________ syndrome /surname/
Answer: Brown-Sekar.
TOPIC 7. EPILEPSY. MYASTHENIAS.
SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER:
181. Absence differs from petit mal:
1. nature of the seizure
2. occurring at certain hours
3. EEG - characteristic Answer: 3
182. To relieve status epilepticus the following is used:
1. seduxen
2. respiratory analeptics
3. ganglion blockers Answer: 1
183. Type of inheritance in epilepsy:
1. autosomal dominant
2. autosomal recessive
3. polygenic Answer: 3
184. During myasthenic crisis it is necessary:
1. administer respiratory analeptics
2. administer proserin intravenously
3. administer oxazil per os Answer: 2
185. The most informative study for identifying thymoma in myasthenia gravis:
1. pneumomediastinography
2. phlebography
3. MRI - tomography Answer: 3
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
186. The main inhibitory neurotransmitters in epilepsy:
2. serotonin
3. glutamate
4. norepinephrine
5. histamine Answer: 1,2,4.
187. In epilepsy, the following are genetically determined:
1. convulsive readiness of the brain
2. state of cell membranes
3. epilepsy of neurons
4. energy balance of the cell Answer: 1.3.
188. Diagnostic tests for myasthenia gravis:
2. proserine test
3. motor load test
4. atropine test
5. electromyography
Answer: 2,3,5.
189. Clinical signs myasthenia gravis:
1. general malaise
2. muscle weakness
3. change in heart rate
4. diplopia
5. Symptoms increase during the day
6. the onset of symptoms in the early morning hours Answer: 2,4,5.
190. Symptoms characteristic of the ocular form of myasthenia:
1. lagophthalmos
2. chewing disorder
4. diplopia
5. dysphagia
6. strabismus Answer: 3,4,6.
MATCH:
191. Type of epileptic seizure: Clinical manifestations:
1. partial A. complex
2. generalized B. petit mal
D. simple Answer: 1 - A, G. 2 - B, V.
192. Type of epileptic seizure: Clinical manifestations:
1. simple A. motor
2. complex B. epileptic automatisms
V. with impaired consciousness
D. sensory Answer: 1 - A, G. 2 - B, V.
193. Type of epileptic seizure: Clinical manifestations:
1. Jacksonian epilepsy A. focal seizures
2. temporal lobe epilepsy B. vegetative-visceral crises
B. psycho-emotional disorders
D. attacks of paresthesia Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - B, C.
194. Current convulsive syndrome: Medical tactics:
1. first-time epileptic seizure A. observation by a neurologist in
clinic
2. single febrile convulsions
in a 1 year old child B. hospitalization in a hospital
3. recurrent epileptic seizures B. observation in the intensive care unit
4-5 times a year
Answer: 1 - B. 2 - A. 3 - B.
195. Disease: The most appropriate methods
research:
1. Genuine epilepsy A. EEG
2. seizures due to tumor B. CT scan
brain V. clinical and genealogical
3. seizures in arteriovenous G. ECHO-EG
malformations D. angiography
E. NMR tomography Answer: 1 - A, C. 2 - B, D, E. 3 - D, E.
ESTABLISH SEQUENCE:
196. Phases of a grand mal epileptic seizure:
Clonic
Initial
Tonic
Post-tictal Answer: 3,1,2,4.
197. Development of clinical symptoms during an epileptic seizure:
Tongue bite
Midriaz
Involuntary urination Answer: 3,1,2,4.
198. Medical measures during an epileptic seizure:
Administration of anticonvulsants
Tongue fixation
Preventing patient injury Answer: 3,2,1.
199. Medical measures for epistatus:
Lumbar puncture
Regulation of external respiration
Administration of anticonvulsants Answer: 3,1,2.
200. Medical measures for myasthenic crisis:
Oxazil orally 0.01 until muscle weakness regresses
Respiratory Capacity Assessment
Proserin 1 ml 0.5% IV Answer: 3,2,1.
ADD:
201. In epilepsy, personality changes in the form of euphoria and exaltation are characteristic of the localization of the pathological process in the ____________ hemisphere. Answer: right
202. Main inhibitory transmitter in epilepsy: _____________/abbreviation/
Answer: GABA
203. The main excitatory transmitter in epilepsy: _______________.
Answer: glutamate
204. In epilepsy, personality changes in the form of rigidity of mental processes, viscosity, hypochondria are characteristic of the localization of the pathological process in
Hemispheres.
Answer: left
205. In the implementation of hereditary predisposition in epilepsy, ___________ factors play an important role. Answer: exogenous
206. For myasthenia gravis pathological process develops in the area of _________ - ______ synapse.
Answer: neuromuscular
207. With myasthenia gravis, a process of autoaggression occurs against ___________ receptors.
Answer: acetylcholine
208. When performing a diagnostic test to detect myasthenia gravis, the patient is given ____________.
Answer: proserin
209. To relieve a myasthenic crisis, the patient is given _____________. Answer: proserin
210. To relieve a cholinergic crisis, the patient is given ______________. Answer: atropine
TOPIC 8. MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS. AMYOTROPHIC LATERAL SCLEROSIS.
CHOOSE ONE CORRECT ANSWER.
211. Multiple sclerosis is a disease of the central nervous system:
1. vascular
2. hereditary
3. demyelinating Answer: 3.
212. Multiple sclerosis occurs more often at the age of:
1. 10 -14 years
2. 18 - 30 years old
3. 40 - 55 years old Answer: 2.
213. Syndrome characteristic of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis:
1. seizures
2. dysfunction of the pelvic organs
3. amyotrophy with fibrillations and hyperreflexia
4. central monoparesis
5. trophic ulcers Answer: 3.
214. Multiple sclerosis must be differentiated from:
1. meningitis
2. disseminated encephalomyelitis
3. subarachnoid hemorrhage Answer: 2.
215. Symptom characteristic of the bulbar form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
1. sensory disturbances
2. amblyopia
3. dysarthria and dysphagia
4. atrophy of the lower extremities Answer: 3.
216. In multiple sclerosis, the system most often affected is:
1. sensitive
2. pyramidal and cerebellar
3. strio-nigral Answer: 2.
217. In amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, the system is affected:
1. vegetative
2. motor
3. sensitive Answer: 2.
218. With amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, a combined lesion develops:
1. front and posterior horns spinal cord
2. anterior horns and pyramidal tract
3. dorsal horns and posterior columns of the spinal cord
4. pyramidal tract and cerebellum Answer: 2.
219. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis often develops at the age of:
1. 20 - 30 years
2. 15 - 20 years
3. 50 - 70 years
4. 30 - 40 years Answer: 3.
220. Syndrome characteristic of multiple sclerosis:
1. retrobulbar neuritis
2. sympathoadrenal crisis
3. Kozhevnikov epilepsy
4. Jacksonian epilepsy Answer: 1.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
221. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by damage to:
1. sensory dorsal ganglia
2. cerebellum
3. olfactory tract
4. pyramid path
5. optic nerve
6. anterior horns of the spinal cord Answer: 2, 4, 5.
222. In multiple sclerosis, lesion visual analyzer appears as:
1. retinal angiopathy
2. retrobulbar neuritis
3. hemianopsia
4. congestive optic disc
5. blanching of the temporal halves of the optic nerve head
6. transient amaurosis
7. visual hallucinations Answer: 2, 5, 6.
223. The cervicothoracic form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis begins with:
1. weakness in the distal arms
2. seizures
3. dysfunction of the pelvic organs
4. arm muscle atrophy
5. fasciculations
6. visual impairment Answer: 1, 4, 5.
224. For the treatment of multiple sclerosis, the following are used with the greatest effect:
1. antibiotics
2. corticosteroids
3. plasma ferresis
4. calcium channel blockers
5. iron supplements
6. b-ferron Answer: 2, 3, 6.
225. In multiple sclerosis, antigens of the histocompatibility complex /HLA system/ are found:
5. DR1 Answer: 3, 4.
MATCH:
226. Disease: Symptoms:
1.amyotrophic lateral sclerosis A. young age
2. multiple sclerosis B. progressive course
B. pelvic disorders are not typical
G. pelvic disorders are typical
D. old age
E. remitting course
G. muscle atrophy
H. disappearance of abdominal reflexes
I. fasciculations
K. cerebellar disorders Answer: 1 -B,C,D,G,I. 2 - A, G, E, Z, K.
227. Form of multiple sclerosis: Symptoms:
1.cerebral A. nystagmus
2. spinal B. mental disorders
B. lower spastic paraparesis
D. intention tremor
D. pelvic disorders
E. visual impairment Answer: 1 - A, B, D, E. 2 - C, D.
228. Variant of the course of multiple sclerosis: Signs:
1. benign A. long-term remissions
2. malignant B. progressive course
B. frequent exacerbations
G. onset at 35 -40 years old
D. rapid development of hormonal dependence
E. bulbar symptoms Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - B, C, D, E
229. Therapy for multiple sclerosis: Medications:
1. pathogenetic A. dexazone
2. symptomatic B. ACTH
V. baclofen, mydocalm
G. cyclophosphamide
D. interferron
E. massage
G. psychotropic drugs
Z. proserin Answer: 1 - A, B, D, D. 2 - C, E, G, Z.
230. Differential diagnosis of diseases: Symptoms:
1. multiple sclerosis A. strio-nigral syndromes
2. hepatocerebral dystrophy B. partial atrophy of the optic discs
B. autosomal recessive type of transmission
D. disorder of copper metabolism
D. liver pathology
E. pyramidal-cerebellar syndromes
G. Kaiser-Fleischer rings
Z. multifactorial disease Answer: 1 - B, E, H. 2 - A, C, D, E, G.
ADD:
231. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by ________________ course of the disease.
Answer: remitting.
232. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is characterized by a _______________ course of the disease.
Answer: progressive.
233. Atrophy of the temporal halves of the optic discs, a characteristic sign of ______________ ___________ ./disease/.
Answer: multiple sclerosis.
234. Spondylogenic cervical myelopathy must be differentiated from ___________ ___________ __________.
Answer: amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
235. Multiple sclerosis belongs to the group of ___________________ diseases. Answer: demyelinating.
TOPIC 9. Peripheral diseases nervous system.
CHOOSE ONE CORRECT ANSWER.
236. The cervical plexus consists of spinal roots:
5. C1-Th2 Answer: 3
237. Brachial plexus make up the spinal roots:
5. C5-C8 Answer: 2
238. Pain along the posterolateral surface of the thigh is characteristic of damage to the root:
4. S1 Answer: 4
239. For defeat femoral nerve typical violation:
1. calf flexion
2. shin extension
3. plantar extension of the foot
4. dorsiflexion of the foot
5. Achilles reflex Answer: 2
240. Damage to the sciatic nerve is characterized by:
1. absence of the Achilles reflex
2. lack of knee reflex
3. hypoesthesia along the anterior surface of the thigh
4. positive Wasserman sign Answer: 1
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
241. Damage to the facial nerve is characterized by:
2. hypoesthesia of half the face
3. paresis of the facial muscles of half the face
4. lacrimation
5. divergent strabismus
6. decreased brow reflex
7. Bell's sign
Answer: 3, 4, 6, 7.
242. Damage to the spinal ganglion is characterized by:
1. radicular pain
2. herpetic rashes /herpes zoster/
3. peripheral segmental paresis
4. dissociated type of sensitivity disorder
5. disorder of all types of sensitivity in the corresponding segment
Answer: 1, 2, 5.
243. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by:
1. seizures acute pain in the face
2. peripheral paresis of the facial muscles
3. presence of trigger zones on the face
4. decreased taste on the back third of the tongue
5. pain relief by taking finlepsin Answer: 1, 3, 5.
244. Symptoms characteristic of polyneuropathy:
1. hemiparesis
2. conduction type of sensitivity disorder
3. pain along the nerves
4. peripheral paresis of the hands and feet
5. muscle hypertension
6. decreased sensitivity in the distal limbs
7. autonomic disorders in the distal limbs Answer: 3, 4, 6, 7.
245. Symptoms characteristic of diphtheria polyneuropathy:
1. central tetraparesis
2. bulbar palsy
3. paralysis of accommodation
4. meningeal symptoms
5. pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid
6. parasthesia in the limbs
7. heart rhythm disturbances Answer: 2, 3, 6, 7.
MATCH:
251. Peripheral nerve: Symptom of damage:
1. sciatic A. Lassegue
2. femoral B. Wasserman
V. Matskevich-Shtryumpel
D. "landing" Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - B, C.
252. Indications for surgical treatment of vertebrogenic radiculopathies:
1. absolute A. block of the subarachnoid space
2. relative B. pain syndrome for more than two months
B. dysfunction of the pelvic organs Answer: 1 - A, B. 2 - B.
253. Disease: Symptoms:
1. acute polyradiculoneuropathy A. peripheral tetraparesis
Guillain-Barré B. paresis in the distal parts of the extremity
2. alcoholic polyneuropathy
B. paresis of facial muscles
D. pain in the limbs
D. protein-cell dissociation in the cerebrospinal fluid
E. paresis in the proximal limbs
Answer: 1 - A, B, D, D, E. 2 - A, B, G.
254. Disease: Therapy:
1. herpetic polyradiculo- A. B vitamins
neuropathy B. plasmaferresis
2. acute polyradiculoneuro- B. anticholinesterase drugs
Guillain-Barré disease G. acyclovir, zoverax
Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - A, B, C.
255. Disease: Symptoms:
1. trigeminal neuralgia A. “shooting” pain
2. neuropathy of the facial nerve B. Bell's symptom
B. presence of trigger zones
G. lagophthalmos
D. absence of the brow reflex Answer: 1 - A, C. 2 - B, D, D.
ADD:
256. A “claw-shaped” hand is characteristic of damage to the ____________ nerve.
Answer: elbow
257. A “dangling” hand is characteristic of damage to the ____________ nerve.
Answer: radial
258. “Monkey” hand is characteristic of damage to the _____________ nerve.
Answer: middle
259. The absence of the ulnar extension reflex is characteristic of damage to the ____________ nerve.
Answer: radial
260. The absence of a knee reflex is characteristic of damage to the ____________ nerve.
Answer: femoral.
TOPIC 10. Hereditary diseases of the nervous system.
CHOOSE ONE CORRECT ANSWER.
261. Type of inheritance of Wilson's disease:
1. autosomal dominant
2. autosomal recessive
4. dominantly linked to the X chromosome Answer: 2.
262. Type of inheritance of Huntington's chorea:
1. autosomal dominant
2. autosomal recessive
3. linked to the X chromosome recessively
4. dominantly linked to the X chromosome Answer: 1.
263. Type of inheritance of Duchenne myopathy:
1. autosomal dominant
2. autosomal recessive
3. linked to the X chromosome recessively
4. dominantly linked to the X chromosome Answer: 3.
264. To make a diagnosis of Wilson's disease, the following are decisive:
1. damage to the extrapyramidal system
2. copper metabolism disorder
3. liver damage Answer: 2.
265. The gene defect in Duchenne myopathy is a violation of the synthesis of:
1. dopamine
2. dystrophin protein
3. ceruloplasmin
4. copper transport ATPase
5. phenyl-alanine hydroxylase Answer: 2.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
266. Hereditary diseases of the nervous system include:
1. multiple sclerosis
3. myasthenia gravis
4. chorea minor
5. Huntington's chorea Answer: 2, 5.
267. Symptoms characteristic of Huntington’s chorea:
1. onset at the age of 20 -30 years
2. onset at the age of 30 - 50 years
3. autosomal dominant type of inheritance
4. autosomal recessive type of inheritance
5. development of dementia
6. the effect of therapy depends on the timing of the start of treatment Answer: 2, 3, 5.
268. Symptoms characteristic of Wilson's disease:
1. Kaiser-Fleischer rings
2. muscle atrophy
3. liver cirrhosis
4. hyperkinetic syndrome
5. optic disc atrophy
6. sensory disturbances
7. akinetic-rigid syndrome Answer: 1, 3, 4, 7.
269. Symptoms characteristic of Duchenne myopathy:
1. myocardial dystrophy
2. pseudohypertrophy of the leg muscles
3. atrophy of the muscles of the distal limbs
4. atrophy of the muscles of the proximal limbs
5. increased CPK content in urine
6. decrease in CPK content in urine
7. onset at the age of 2 - 5 years
8. beginning at the age of 10 -15 years Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5, 7.
270. Symptoms characteristic of Wilson's disease:
1. hypercupuria
2. decreased ceruloplasmin content
3. increased copper content in bile
4. decreased copper content in urine
5. Kaiser-Fleischer rings
6. increased ceruloplasmin content
7. decreased copper content in bile Answer: 1, 2, 5, 7.
MATCH:
271. Syndrome: Karyotype:
1. Klinefeltera A. 47, ХХУ
2. Shereshevsky-Turner B. 47, XX+21
3. Dauna V. 45, ХО
4. polysomy on the X chromosome G. 47, XXX
Answer: 1 - A 2 - B 3 - B 4 - D
272. Disease: Therapy:
1. Huntington's chorea A. d-penicillamine
2. Wilson's disease B. essentiale
B. haloperidol
D. zinc sulfate Answer: 1 - B 2 - A, B, D.
273. Disease: Type of mutation:
1. Huntington's chorea A. aneuploidy
2. Down's disease B. dynamic/expansion/
3. Fragile X syndrome B. polyploidy Answer: 1 - B 2 - A 3 - B
274. Disease: Therapy:
1. Parkinson's disease A. antelepsin
2. Spasmodic torticollis B. nakom
V. cyclodolus
G. relanium Answer: 1 - B, C 2 - A, D
275. Disease: Symptom:
1. Duchenne myopathy A. trembling hyperkinesis
2. torsion dystonia B. “duck walk”
3. Wilson's disease B. muscular dyskinesia
G. muscle atrophy Answer: 1 - B, D 2 - C 3- A
TOPIC 11. SYRINGOMYELIA.
SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:
276. Syringomyelia is characterized by damage to:
1. ponytail
2. dorsal horns of the spinal cord
3. anterior roots of the spinal cord
4. medulla oblongata
5. subcortical nuclei Answer: 2, 4.
277. Syringomyelia is characterized by:
1. dysraphic status
2. painless burns
3. flaccid paresis of the limbs
4. epileptic seizures
5. pelvic disorders Answer: 1, 2, 3.
278. Differential diagnosis of syringomyelia is carried out with:
1.intramedullary tumor
2. extramedullary tumor
3. multiple sclerosis
4. cranio-vertebral anomaly
5. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Answer: 1, 4.
279. In the treatment of syringomyelia the following is used:
1. X-ray therapy
3. anticholinesterase drugs
4. hemosorption
5. plasma ferresis Answer: 1, 2, 3.
280. To diagnose syringomyelia use:
1. biochemical blood tests
2. molecular diagnostic methods
5. karyotyping Answer: 3, 4.
Formation and transformation of testing in the domestic history of education and pedagogical thought. Based on the analysis of the problem, the research topic was formulated: “The genesis of testing in the history of domestic education.” Relevance, inconsistencies, opposites, contradictions, problem and topic allowed us to formulate the purpose of the study: to identify, define, justify the premises...
With disc tissue antigens. However, it remains unclear whether the immunological component is the trigger, i.e. does it play a major role in the etiology of the disease or does it accompany the development of the disease. Traumatic theory. The traumatic factor can be both etiological and provoking in nature. The role of the traumatic factor in the etiology of osteochondrosis is recognized by all and confirmed...
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QUALIFICATION TEST IN NEUROLOGY
Section 1. CLINICAL ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM. TOPICAL DIAGNOSTICS
01.1. When the abducens nerve is damaged, paralysis of the extraocular muscle occurs.
a) the upper straight line
b) outer straight line
c) bottom line
d) lower oblique
e) upper oblique
01.2. Mydriasis occurs when there is a lesion
a) the upper portion of the magnocellular nucleus of the oculomotor nerve
b) the lower portion of the magnocellular nucleus of the oculomotor nerve
c) parvocellular accessory nucleus of the oculomotor nerve
d) middle unpaired nucleus
e) nuclei of the medial longitudinal fasciculus
01.3. If the upper limit of conduction disorders of pain sensitivity is determined at the level of the T 10 dermatome, the spinal cord lesion is localized at the level of the segment
a) T 6 or T 7
b) T 8 or T 9
c) T 9 or T 10
d) T 10 or T 11
e) T 11 or T 12
01.4. With central paralysis there is
a) muscle atrophy
b) increased tendon reflexes
c) sensitivity disorder of the polyneuritic type
d) disorders of electrical excitability of nerves and muscles
e) fibrillary twitching
01.5. Choreic hyperkinesis occurs when there is a lesion
a) paleostriatum
b) neostriatum
c) medial globus pallidus
d) lateral globus pallidus
d) cerebellum
01.6. Deep sensory fibers for the lower extremities are located in a thin bundle of posterior funiculi in relation to the midline
a) laterally
b) medially
c) ventrally
d) dorsally
e) ventrolateral
01.7. Deep sensory fibers for the trunk and upper extremities are located in the wedge-shaped bundle of the posterior funiculi in relation to the midline
a) laterally
b) medially
c) ventrally
d) dorsally
e) ventromedial
01.8. Fibers of pain and temperature sensitivity (lateral lemniscus) join fibers of deep and tactile sensitivity (medial lemniscus)
a) in the medulla oblongata
b) in the pons of the brain
c) in the cerebral peduncles
d) in the optic thalamus
d) in the cerebellum
01.9. The main mediator of the inhibitory effect is
a) acetylcholine
c) norepinephrine
d) adrenaline
d) dopamine
01.10. All afferent pathways of the striopallidal system end
a) in the lateral nucleus of the globus pallidus
b) in the striatum
c) in the medial nucleus of the globus pallidus
d) in the subthalamic nucleus
d) in the cerebellum
01.11. Instability in the Romberg position when closing the eyes increases significantly if ataxia occurs.
a) cerebellar
b) sensitive
c) vestibular
d) frontal
d) mixed
01.12. Regulation of muscle tone by the cerebellum when the position of the body in space changes is carried out through
a) red nucleus
b) Lewis body
c) substantia nigra
d) striatum
e) blue spot
01.13. Binasal hemianopsia occurs with lesions
c) visual radiance
d) optic tracts
d) black substance
01.14. Compression leads to a concentric narrowing of the visual field
a) optic tract
b) optic chiasm
c) external geniculate body
d) visual radiance
d) black substance
01.15. When the optic tract is damaged, hemianopia occurs
a) binasal
b) homonymous
c) bitemporal
d) lower quadrant
e) upper quadrant
0116. Homonymous hemianopsia is not observed with the lesion
a) optic tract
b) optic chiasm
c) visual radiance
d) internal capsule
d) optic nerve
01.17. The pathway passes through the superior cerebellar peduncles
a) posterior spinocerebellar
b) anterior spinocerebellar
c) fronto-pontine-cerebellar
d) occipitotemporal pons-cerebellar
e) spinocerebellar
01.18. Olfactory hallucinations observed in case of damage
a) olfactory tubercle
b) olfactory bulb
c) temporal lobe
d) parietal lobe
e) frontal lobe
01.19. Bitemporal hemianopsia is observed with lesions
a) central parts of the optic chiasm
b) external parts of the optic chiasm
c) visual tracts of the optic chiasm
d) visual radiance on both sides
e) frontal lobe
01.20. True urinary incontinence occurs when there is damage
a) paracentral lobules of the anterior central gyrus
b) cervical spinal cord
c) lumbar enlargement of the spinal cord
d) cauda equina spinal cord
e) pons brain
01.21. With paresis of upward gaze and convergence disorder, the focus is localized
a) in the upper parts of the pons of the brain
b) in the lower parts of the pons of the brain
c) in the dorsal part of the midbrain tegmentum
d) in the cerebral peduncles
d) in the medulla oblongata
01.22. Half the diameter of the spinal cord (Brown-Séquard syndrome) is characterized by central paralysis on the side of the lesion in combination
a) with a violation of all types of sensitivity - on the opposite
b) with impaired pain and temperature sensitivity on the side of the lesion
c) with a violation of deep sensitivity on the side of the lesion and pain and temperature sensitivity on the opposite side
d) with a violation of all types of sensitivity on the side of the lesion
e) with polyneuritic sensitivity disorders
01.23. When the cerebellar vermis is damaged, ataxia occurs
a) dynamic
b) vestibular
c) static
d) sensitive
d) frontal
01.24. With peripheral paresis of the left facial nerve, convergent strabismus due to the left eye, hyperesthesia in the middle Zelder zone on the left, pathological reflexes on the right, the focus is localized
a) in the left cerebellopontine angle
b) in the right hemisphere of the cerebellum
c) in the pons of the brain on the left
d) in the area of the apex of the left pyramid temporal bone
d) in the cerebral peduncle
01.25. A seizure begins from the toes of the left foot if the focus is located
a) in the anterior adversive field on the right
b) c upper section posterior central gyrus on the right
c) in the lower part of the anterior central gyrus on the right
d) in the upper part of the anterior central gyrus on the right
e) in the lower part of the posterior central gyrus on the right
01.26. The combination of pain and herpetic rashes in the external auditory canal and auricle, impaired auditory and vestibular function is a sign of node damage
a) vestibular
b) pterygopalatine
c) geniculate
d) Gasserov
e) star-shaped
01.27. Central paresis of the left arm occurs when the lesion is localized
a) in the upper parts of the anterior central gyrus on the left
b) in the lower parts of the anterior central gyrus on the left
c) behind the posterior thigh of the internal capsule
d) in the knee of the internal capsule
e) in the middle section of the anterior central gyrus on the right
01.28. The cervical plexus is formed by the anterior branches of the spinal nerves and cervical segments
01.29. The brachial plexus forms the anterior branches of the spinal nerves
01.30. Nerve impulses are generated
a) cell nucleus
b) outer membrane
c) axon
d) neurofilaments
e) dendrites
01.31. Alexia is observed when affected
a) superior frontal gyrus
b) parahippocampal gyrus
c) thalamus
d) angular gyrus
e) pons brain
01.32. On the cut lower section the medulla oblongata does not distinguish nuclei
a) tender and wedge-shaped
b) spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve
c) hypoglossal nerves
d) facial, abducens nerves
01.33. The brainstem pons includes
a) red kernels
b) nuclei of the trochlear nerve
c) nuclei of the oculomotor nerve
d) nuclei of the abducens nerve
e) nuclei of the hypoglossal nerves
01.34. Hemianesthesia, hemiataxia, hemianopsia are characteristic of the lesion
a) globus pallidus
b) caudate nucleus
c) red nucleus
d) thalamus
d) black substance
01.35. Damage to the cauda equina of the spinal cord is accompanied by
a) flaccid paresis of the legs and sensory impairment of the radicular type
b) spastic paresis of the legs and pelvic disorders
c) impaired deep sensitivity of the distal legs and urinary retention
d) spastic paraparesis of the legs without sensory disorders and dysfunction of the pelvic organs
e) impairment of deep sensitivity of the proximal legs and urinary retention
01.36. True astereognosis is caused by a lesion
a) frontal lobe
b) temporal lobe
c) parietal lobe
d) occipital lobe
d) cerebellum
01.37. Loss of the upper quadrants of the visual fields occurs with lesions
a) external parts of the optic chiasm
b) lingual gyrus
c) deep parts of the parietal lobe
d) primary visual centers in the thalamus
d) optic nerve
01.38. Astereognosis occurs when there is a lesion
a) lingual gyrus of the parietal lobe
b) superior temporal gyrus
c) inferior frontal gyrus
d) superior parietal lobule
d) cerebellum
01.39. Closure of the reflex arc from the biceps brachii tendon occurs at the level of the following segments of the spinal cord
01.40. Association fibers connect
a) symmetrical parts of both hemispheres
b) asymmetrical parts of both hemispheres
c) bark visual thalamus and underlying sections (centrifugal and centripetal paths)
d) different parts of the cortex of the same hemisphere
d) cerebral peduncles
01.41. Patient with visual agnosia
a) sees surrounding objects poorly, but recognizes them
b) sees objects well, but the shape seems distorted
c) does not see objects in the periphery of the visual field
d) sees objects, but does not recognize them
e) sees surrounding objects poorly and does not recognize them
01.42. Patient with motor aphasia
a) understands spoken speech, but cannot speak
b) does not understand spoken speech and cannot speak
c) can speak, but does not understand spoken speech
d) can speak, but the speech is scanned
e) can speak, but does not remember the names of objects
01.43. Patient with sensory aphasia
a) cannot speak and does not understand spoken speech
b) understands spoken speech, but cannot speak
c) can speak, but forgets the names of objects
d) does not understand spoken speech, but controls his own speech
e) does not understand spoken speech and does not control his own
01.44. Amnestic aphasia is observed with lesions
a) frontal lobe
b) parietal lobe
c) the junction of the frontal and parietal lobes
d) the junction of the temporal and parietal lobes
e) occipital lobe
01.45. Combination of swallowing and phonation disorders, dysarthria, paresis soft palate, absence of the pharyngeal reflex and tetraparesis indicates a lesion
a) cerebral peduncle
b) pons brain
c) medulla oblongata
d) midbrain tegmentum
d) hypothalamus
01.46. The combination of paresis of the left half of the soft palate, deviation of the uvula to the right, increased tendon reflexes and pathological reflexes on the right extremities indicates a lesion
a) medulla oblongata at the level of the motor nucleus of the IX and X nerves on the left
b) medulla oblongata at the level of the XII nerve on the left
c) knee of the internal capsule on the left
d) posterior thigh of the internal capsule on the left
d) hypothalamus
01.47. In alternating Millard-Gubler syndrome, the focus is located
a) at the base of the cerebral peduncle
b) in the posterolateral part of the medulla oblongata
c) in the area of the red nucleus
d) at the base of the lower part of the pons
d) in the hypothalamus
01.48. Features of the pilomotor reflex disorder have topical and diagnostic significance in case of damage
a) quadrigeminal
b) medulla oblongata
c) hypothalamus
d) spinal cord
e) peripheral nerves
01.49. Lesions in the ventral half of the lumbar enlargement are not characterized by the presence
a) inferior flaccid paraparesis
b) disorders of pain sensitivity
c) dysfunction of the pelvic organs of the central type
d) sensitive ataxia of the lower extremities
e) preserved deep sensitivity
01.50. Oral automatism reflexes indicate damage to the tracts
a) corticospinal
b) corticonuclear
c) fronto-pontine-cerebellar
d) rubrospinal
e) spinocerebellar
01.51. The grasping reflex (Yaniszewski) is noted when affected
a) parietal lobe
b) temporal lobe
c) frontal lobe
d) occipital lobe
d) hypothalamus
01.52. Auditory agnosia occurs with damage
a) parietal lobe
b) frontal lobe
c) occipital lobe
d) temporal lobe
d) hypothalamus
01.53. Alternating Foville syndrome is characterized by simultaneous involvement of nerves in the pathological process
a) facial and abducens
b) facial and oculomotor
c) glossopharyngeal nerve and vagus
d) sublingual and accessory
e) additional and block
01.54. Jugular foramen syndrome is characterized by nerve damage
a) glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory
b) vagus, accessory, sublingual
c) accessory, glossopharyngeal, sublingual
d) vagus, facial, trigeminal
e) vagus, oculomotor, abducens
01.55. Constructive apraxia occurs when there is a lesion
a) frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere
b) frontal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere
e) occipital lobes
01.56. Body schema disorder is noted when affected
a) temporal lobe of the dominant hemisphere
b) temporal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere
c) parietal lobe of the dominant hemisphere
d) parietal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere
d) hypothalamus
01.57. Sensory aphasia occurs when there is a lesion
a) superior temporal gyrus
b) middle temporal gyrus
c) superior parietal lobule
d) inferior parietal lobule
d) hypothalamus
01.58. Motor apraxia in the left hand develops with the lesion
a) genu corpus callosum
b) trunk of the corpus callosum
c) thickening of the corpus callosum
d) frontal lobe
e) occipital lobe
01.59. Segmental apparatus sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is represented by neurons of the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of segments
a) C 5 -T 10
b) T 1 - T 12
01.60. The caudal section of the segmental apparatus of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is represented by neurons of the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of segments
a) L 4 -L 5 -S 1
b) L 5 -S 1 -S 2
01.61. The ciliospinal center is located in the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of the segments
GENERAL NEUROLOGY TESTS__Propulsion system
1. Muscle tone in peripheral motor neuron lesions:
1.Decreasing
2.Increases
3.Does not change
Answer: 1
2. Muscle tone with damage to the central motor neuron:
1.Decreasing
2.Increases
3.Does not change
Answer: 2
3. Pathological pyramidal symptoms on the upper limb - reflexes:
1.Babinsky
2.Oppenheim
3.Rossolimo
4. Schaeffer
Answer: 3
4. Muscle wasting is characteristic of the lesion:
1.Central motor neuron
2.Peripheral motor neuron
3. Cerebellum
Answer: 2
5. Pathological reflexes are characteristic of the lesion:
1.Peripheral motor neuron
2.Central motor neuron
3. Cerebellum
Answer: 2
6. Deep reflexes with damage to the central motor neuron:
1.Increasing
2.Do not change
3.Decreasing
Answer: 1
7. Deep reflexes with damage to the peripheral motor neuron:
1.Increasing
2.Decreasing
3.Do not change
Answer: 2
8. In case of damage to the peripheral motor neuron of the muscle trophism:
1.Reduced
2.Increased
3.Not changed
Answer: 1
9. With damage to the central motor neuron, pathological synkinesis:
1.Can be observed
2.Always observed
3.Not observed
Answer: 1
10. Sign of damage to the internal capsule:
1.Hemiparesis
2. Paraparesis
3.Monoplegia
Answer: 1
11. Signs of damage to the central motor neuron:
1.Fibrillation
2.Hyporeflexia
3. Muscle atony
4.Pathological reflexes
5.Protective reflexes
6.Synkinesis
7. Clonus
8.Lack of skin reflexes
9.Lack of tendon reflexes
Answer: 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
12. Signs of peripheral motor neuron damage:
1.Spastic tone
2. Muscle hypotension
3.Decreased tendon reflexes
4. Muscle wasting
5. Reaction of muscle degeneration during the study of electrical excitability
Answer: 2, 3, 4, 5
13. Signs of peripheral nerve damage:
1. Muscle wasting
2.Pathological reflexes
3.Defensive reflexes
4. Areflexia
Answer: 1, 4
14. Signs of damage to the pyramidal tract:
1.Hemiparesis
2.Increasing muscle tone in paretic muscles
3.Increased tendon reflexes
4.Decreased muscle tone
5.Decreased skin reflexes
6.Defensive reflexes
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
15. Signs of damage to the anterior horns of the spinal cord:
1. Muscle hypotension
2.Fibrillary twitching
3.Lack of tendon reflexes
4. Muscle wasting
5.Pathological reflexes
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4
Match:
16. Localization of the lesion: Symptoms:
1. Bilateral damage to the pyramidal A. Spastic tone
pathways in the thoracic spine B. Clonus of the feet
brain (Th5-Th7). B. Muscle hypotonia
2. Peripheral nerves of the lower G. Absence of knee and
limb Achilles reflexes
D. Paresis of the lower extremities
E. Paresis of the upper limbs
Answer: 1 - A, B, D. 2 - B, D, D.
17. Localization of the lesion: Symptoms:
1. Internal capsule A. Hemiplegia
2.C4-C8 segments of the spinal cord B. Wernicke-Mann position
B. Peripheral paresis of the arm
G. Fibrillary twitching
Answer: 1 - A, B
2 - V, G
18. Localization of the lesion: Symptoms:
1. Bilateral damage to the pyramidal tracts A. Tetraparesis
in the upper cervical spinal cord B. Spastic tone
B. Pathological reflexes
2. Brachial plexus G. Hypotrophy
D. Peripheral paresis of the arm
E. Lack of deep reflexes Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2 - G, D, E.
19. Localization of the lesion: Symptoms:
1. Internal capsule A. Muscle hypotonia
2. Anterior root of the spinal cord B. Increase in deep
reflexes
B. Pathological reflexes
D. Sensitivity disorder of the radicular type
Answer: 1 - B, C. 2 - A.
20. Localization of the lesion: Symptoms:
1. Pyramidal tracts in the cervical spine A. Tetraparesis
spinal cord B. Increased muscle tone
2. Anterior root of S1 segment B. Paresis of foot extensors
D. Absence of the Achilles reflex
D. Hyperreflexia
E. Lack of knee reflex
Answer: 1 - A, B, D. 2 - V, G
Add:
21. Central lower paraparesis is a syndrome of ___________ ___________ lesions of the spinal cord at the level of _____________ segments.
Answer: full transverse, thoracic
22. The syndrome of damage to half the diameter of the spinal cord is called ___________ - _____________ syndrome.
Answer: Brown-Sequard
23. Spastic tone, hyperreflexia, pathological reflexes, clonus are signs of damage to the _______________ ____________ neuron.
Answer: central motor
24. Muscle atrophy, muscle atony, areflexia - signs of damage
_____________ _______________ neuron.
Answer: peripheral motor
25. Peripheral paresis of the upper extremities - lesion syndrome
__________ ___________ spinal cord at the level of ____-____ segments.
Answer: anterior horns, C5-C8
__Cranial nerves
Choose one correct answer:
26. Bulbar palsy develops when the cranial nerves are damaged:
1.IX, X, XII
2.IX, X, XI
3.VIII, IX, X
Answer: 1
27. The nucleus of the cranial nerves has unilateral cortical innervation:
1.XII,X
2.XII, VII
3.VII, X
Answer: 2
28. The area of the brain stem where the nucleus of the oculomotor nerve is located:
1. Varoliev Bridge
2.Cerebral peduncle
3. Medulla oblongata
Answer: 2
29. Ptosis is observed when a pair of cranial nerves is damaged:
1.IV
2.V
3.III
Answer: 3
30. Strabismus is observed when a pair of cranial nerves is damaged:
1.III
2.XII
3.VII
4.V
Answer: 1
31. Dysphagia occurs when a pair of cranial nerves is damaged:
1.V-VII
2.IX-X
3.VII-XI
Answer: 2
32. Dysarthria occurs when a pair of cranial nerves is damaged:
1.V
2.XI
3.XII
Answer: 3
33. Facial muscles are innervated by a pair of cranial nerves:
1.V
2.VI
3.VII
Answer: 3
34. The sphincter of the pupil is innervated by the nerve:
1.III
2.IV
3.VI
Answer: 1
35. Diplopia occurs when a pair of cranial nerves is damaged:
1.VII
2.X
3.VI
4.V
Answer: 3
36. Ptosis occurs when the cranial nerve is damaged:
1.IV
2.VI
3.III
4.V
Answer: 3
37. Dysphagia occurs when cranial nerves are damaged:
1.IX-X
2.VIII-XII
3.VII-XI
Answer: 1
38. The muscles of mastication are innervated by the cranial nerve:
1.VII
2.X
3.XII
4.V
Answer: 4
39. Swallowing disorder occurs when muscles are damaged:
1.Soft palate
2. Chewable
3.Mimic
Answer: 1
40.Dysphonia occurs when cranial nerves are damaged:
1.XII
2.X
3.XI
Answer: 2
Select all correct answers:
41. Symptoms characteristic of bulbar palsy are:
1. The pharyngeal reflex is caused
2. There is no pharyngeal reflex
3.Peripheral paresis of the hypoglossal nerve
4. Symptoms of oral automatism
5.Dysphagia
6.Dysarthria
7.Aphonia
Answer: 2, 3, 5, 6, 7
42. Signs characteristic of damage to the facial nerve:
1.Dysphagia
2. Smoothness of the frontal and nasolabial folds
3.Lagophthalmos
4.Bell's sign
5. Difficulty protruding tongue
6. "Sail" symptom
7. Impossibility of whistling
8.Hyperacusis
9.Decreased brow reflex
Answer: 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9
43. Signs characteristic of damage to the oculomotor nerve:
1. Convergent strabismus
2.Mydriasis
3. Limitation of upward movement of the eyeball
4. Limitation of outward movement of the eyeball
5. Divergent strabismus
6.Ptosis
7.Diplopia
Answer: 2, 3, 5, 6, 7
44. Symptoms characteristic of Weber's alternating syndrome:
1.Mydriasis
2. Convergent strabismus
3. Divergent strabismus
4.Diplopia
5.Ptosis
6.Lagophthalmos
7. Hemiplegia
Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5, 7
45. Strabismus occurs when the cranial nerve is damaged:
1.III
2.VI
3.VII
4.II
Answer: 1, 2
Match:
46. Symptom: Localization of the lesion:
1.Ptosis A.III
2.Dysphagia B.IX-X
3.Strabismus B.VII
4.Lagophthalmos G.V
Answer: 1-A, 2-B, 3-A, 4-B
47. Syndrome: Symptoms of damage:
1. Bulbar palsy A. Dysphagia
2. Pseudobulbar palsy B. Dysarthria
B. Dysphonia
G. Atrophy of the tongue
D. Symptoms of oral automatism Answer: 1 - A, B, C, D. 2 - A, B, C, D.
48. Cranial nerve: Symptoms of damage:
1.IX-X A. Dysphagia
2.VII B. Divergent strabismus
3.III V.Lagophthalmos
4.VI G. Ptosis
D. Convergent strabismus
Answer: 1 - A. 2 - C. 3 - B, D. 4 - D.
49. Nuclei of cranial nerves: Localization:
1.III A.Cerebral peduncles
2.VII B. Varoliev Bridge
3.XII century. Medulla oblongata
4.IV D. Internal capsule
5.X
Answer: 1 - A. 2 - B. 3 - C. 4 - A. 5 - C.
50. Cranial nerve: Nucleus localization:
1.IV A.Cerebral peduncles
2.VI B. Varoliev Bridge
3.VIII B. Medulla oblongata
Answer: 1 - A. 2 - B. 3 - B.
__Extrapyramidal-cerebellar system
Choose one correct answer:
51. Statics depends on normal activity:
1.Caudate nucleus
2. Cerebellum
3.Substantia nigra
Answer: 2
52. Damage to the cerebellum leads to movement disorders in the form of:
1.Paresis
2.Ataxia
3.Hyperkinesis
Answer: 2
53. Dysmetria occurs when:
1.Pyramid path
2. Cerebellum
3.Strio-pallidal system
Answer: 2
54. Muscle tone with damage to the cerebellum:
1.Increases
2.Lowers
3.Does not change
Answer: 2
55. Rate of active movements in case of damage to the pallido-nigral system:
1.Slows down
2.Accelerates
3. Hyperkinesis appears
Answer: 1
56. Hyperkinesis occurs when:
1.Pyramid system
2. Extrapyramidal system
3. Temporal lobe cortex
Answer: 2
57. When the extrapyramidal system is damaged, the following occurs:
1.Akinesia
2.Apraxia
3.Paresis
Answer: 1
58. Nystagmus occurs when:
1. Frontal lobe cortex
2.Caudate nucleus
3. Cerebellum
Answer: 3
59. Handwriting with cerebellar damage:
1.Micrography
2. Macrography
3.Does not change
Answer: 2
60. The red core is part of the system:
1.Pallido-nigral
2.Striatal
3.Pyramid
Answer: 1
61. Handwriting in a patient with damage to the pallido-nigral system:
1.Micrography
2. Macrography
3.Does not change
Answer: 1
62. Propulsions are observed with damage to:
1.Caudate nucleus
2.Red core
3.Substantia nigra
Answer: 3
63. With damage to the pallido-nigral system, speech:
1.Scanned
2.Dysarthric
3.Quiet monotonous
Answer: 3
64. With damage to the cerebellum, speech:
1.Scanned
2.Aphonia
3.Monotonous
Answer: 1
65. Muscle tone disorder due to damage to the pallido-nigral system:
1.Hypotension
2.Plastic hypertension
3.Spastic hypertension
Answer: 2
66. Gait with damage to the pallido-nigral system:
1.Spastic
2. Spastic-atactic
3.Hemiparetic
4. Shuffling, small steps
Answer: 4
67. Speech disorder due to damage to the extrapyramidal system:
1.Dysarthria
2.Speech is quiet, monotonous
3.Aphonia
Answer: 2
68. Subcortical nuclei affected in striatal syndrome:
1.Pale ball
2. Caudate nucleus
3. Substantia nigra
Answer: 2
69. Muscle tone in pallido-nigral syndrome:
1.Hypotension
2.Hypertension
3.Does not change
Answer: 2
70. When the striatal system is damaged, muscle tone:
1.Increases
2.Lowers
3.Does not change
Answer: 2
71. Symptoms characteristic of cerebellar damage:
1.Dysarthria
2.Chanted speech
3.Hypomimia
4. Bradykinesia
5.Dysmetria
6.Atony
7.Ataxia
Answer: 2, 5, 6, 7
72. Symptoms characteristic of cerebellar damage:
1. Muscular hypertension
2. Muscular hypotonia
3. Intention tremor
4.Chanted speech
5.Myoclonus
Answer: 2, 3, 4
73. When the pallido-nigral system is damaged, the following are observed:
1.Hyperkinesis
2.Dysarthria
3.Chanted speech
4. Muscular hypertension
5. Muscular hypotonia
6.Hypomimia
7. Intention tremor
8.Acheirokinesis
Answer: 4, 6, 8
74. Impulses from proprioceptors enter the cerebellum along the following path:
1. Spinothalamic tract
2.Flexig's Path
3.Gowers Path
4.Vestibulospinal tract
Answer: 2, 3
75. Damage to the caudate nucleus is characterized by:
1. Muscular hypertension
2. Muscular hypotonia
3.Hyperkinesis
4. Bradykinesia
5.Hypomimia
Answer: 2, 3
Add:
76. Damage to the pallido-nigral system is characterized by an increase in muscle tone of the “_____________ ______________” type.
Answer: "gear".
77. Damage to the cerebellum is characterized by ______________ tremor.
Answer: intentional.
78. Balance, coordination of movements, muscle tone are the functions of ___________.
Answer: cerebellum.
79. Hypokinesia, muscle rigidity, rest tremor are signs of ______________ syndrome.
Answer: parkinsonism.
80. Muscular hypotonia, hyperkinesis are signs of damage
______________ systems.
Answer: striatal.
__Sensitive system
81. When the posterior horns are damaged, sensitivity is impaired:
1.Exteroceptive
2.Proprioceptive
3. Interoceptive
Answer: 1
82. When the posterior horn is damaged, sensitivity is impaired:
1.Tactile and temperature
2. Temperature and pain
3. Painful and tactile
Answer: 2
83. The occurrence of pain is characteristic of the lesion:
1.Dorsal roots
2.Anterior roots
3. Posterior femoral internal capsule
Answer: 1
84. With multiple lesions of the dorsal roots, sensitivity is impaired:
1.Deep and superficial
2.Only deep
3.Only superficial
Answer: 1
85. When the optic thalamus is damaged, sensitivity is impaired:
1.Only deep
2.Only superficial
3.Deep and superficial
Answer: 3
86. The occurrence of pain is characteristic of the lesion:
1.Optic tract
2. Optic thalamus
3.Visual cortex
Answer: 2
87. Bitemporal hemianopsia is observed with lesions:
1.Optic tract
2.Medial part of the chiasm
3. Lateral part of the chiasm
Answer: 2
88. When the internal capsule is damaged, the following is observed:
1. Homonymous hemianopsia on the opposite side
2. Homonymous hemianopsia on the same side
3. Heteronymous hemianopsia
Answer: 1
89. Brown-Séquard syndrome occurs when the spinal cord is damaged:
1.Full diameter
2.Anterior horns
3.Half diameter
Answer: 3
90. With transverse lesions of the thoracic spinal cord, sensitivity disorders are observed:
1.Conductor
2.Segmental
3. Radicular
Answer: 1
91. When the internal capsule is damaged, sensory disorders occur:
1.Monoanesthesia
2. Hemianesthesia
3.Paresthesia
Answer: 2
92. When the posterior columns of the spinal cord are damaged, sensory disturbances are observed:
1.Temperature
2.Vibration
3. Painful
Answer: 2
93. When the optic thalamus is damaged, ataxia occurs:
1.Cerebellar
2. Sensitive
3.Vestibular
Answer: 2
94. Total loss hearing with unilateral damage to the superior temporal gyrus is observed:
1.For my part
2.On the opposite side
3.Not observed
Answer: 3
95. When irritation of the cortical temporal region occurs:
1.Visual hallucinations
2.Auditory hallucinations
3. Noise in the ear
Answer: 2
Select all correct answers:
96. The most typical symptoms for the “polyneuritic” type of sensitivity disorder are:
1. Sensitivity disorder in the corresponding dermatomes
2. Pain in the limbs
3.Anesthesia in the distal extremities
4. Hemianesthesia
Answer: 2, 3
97. Segmental type of sensitivity disorder occurs when:
1. Posterior horns of the spinal cord
2. Posterior columns of the spinal cord
3. Nuclei of the spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve
4.Inner capsule
Answer: 1, 3
98. Heteronymous hemianopsia occurs when:
1. Midpoints of the chiasm
2.External geniculate body
3. External corners of the chiasm
4.Optic tract
Answer: 1, 3
99. The most typical symptoms for damage to the dorsal roots are:
1.Pain
2.Dissociated sensory disorder
3.Paresthesia
4. Violation of all types of sensitivity
Answer: 1, 4
100. Sensitivity disturbance of the conductive type is observed with damage to:
1.Dorsal roots
2. Gray matter of the spinal cord
3.Lateral columns of the spinal cord
4.Half the diameter of the spinal cord
5.Total diameter of the spinal cord
Answer: 3, 4, 5
101. Hemianopsia in combination with hemianesthesia occurs when:
1.Inner capsule
2. Optic thalamus
3. Posterior central gyrus
4.Occipital lobe
Answer: 1, 2
102. The most typical symptoms for damage to the cauda equina are:
1.Pain
2.Anesthesia on the lower extremities and perineum
3.Spastic paraplegia of the lower extremities
4. Dysfunction of the pelvic organs
5. Leg paresis of peripheral type
Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5
103. The most typical symptoms for conus lesions are:
1. Disorders of the pelvic organs
2.Anesthesia in the perineal area
3. Sensitivity disorders of the conduction type
4. Leg paresis of peripheral type
Answer: 1, 2
104. When the gasserian node is affected, the following are observed on the face:
1. Sensitivity disorders along the branches of the V nerve and herpetic rashes
2. Sensitivity disorders in segments of the V nerve and herpetic rashes
3. Herpetic rashes without sensitivity disorders
4.Pain along the branches of the V nerve
Answer: 1, 4
105. When peripheral nerves are damaged, the following may be observed:
1.Pain and disturbances of deep sensitivity
2.Pain and disturbance of all types of sensitivity
3.Impaired pain and temperature sensitivity
Answer: 1, 2, 3
Add:
106. Hemianopsia, hemianesthesia, hemialgia, sensitive hemiataxia are signs of damage to ______________ _______________. Answer: thalamus
107. When the dorsal horns of the spinal cord are damaged, a ______________ type of sensitivity disorder occurs.
Answer: segmental (dissociated).
108. Pain, temperature, tactile types of sensitivity belong to _______________ sensitivity.
Answer: exteroceptive.
109. Muscular-articular and vibration types of sensitivity belong to _______________ sensitivity.
Answer: proprioceptive.
110. Pain in the face, impaired sensitivity of the facial skin, decreased corneal reflex - symptoms of damage to the __________________ nerve.
Answer: trigeminal
Match:
111. Location of neurons of the spinothalamic tract:
__ - exteroceptor
__ - visual thalamus
__ - internal capsule
__ - dorsal ganglion
__ - posterior horn of the spinal cord
Answer: 1, 4, 5, 2, 6, 3
112. Location of neurons in the Gaulle pathway:
__ - postcentral gyrus
__ - visual thalamus
__ - dorsal ganglion
__ - proprioceptor
__ - Gaulle kernel
__ - internal capsule
Answer: 6, 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
113. Location of optic nerve neurons:
__ - retinal ganglion cell
__ - optic tract
__ - visual chiasma
__ - optic nerve
__ - visual thalamus
__ - visual radiance
__ - calcarine groove
Answer: 1, 4, 3, 2, 5, 6, 7
114. Location of neurons of the trigeminal nerve (sensitive portion):
__ - gasser knot
__ - postcentral gyrus
__ - internal capsule
__ - visual thalamus
__ - nucleus of the spinal tract
Answer: 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
115. Location of neurons of the auditory nerve:
__ - spiral knot
__ - hair cells of the cochlea
__ - trapezoidal bodies
__ - ventral and dorsal nuclei
__ - visual thalamus
__ - Heschl's gyrus
Answer: 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6
__Higher cortical functions
Choose one correct answer:
116. When the right hemisphere of the brain is damaged, right-handers experience cortical speech disorders:
1.Aphasia
2.Alexia
3.Do not occur
Answer: 3
117. In patients with sensory aphasia, the following is impaired:
1.Speech understanding
2.Hearing
3.Speech playback
Answer: 1
118. A patient with amnestic aphasia has impaired ability to:
1.Describe the properties and purpose of the item
2.Give the name of the item
3. Identify the object by palpation
Answer: 2
119. A patient with apraxia has impaired goal-directed actions due to:
1.Paresis
2. Violations of the sequence and pattern of action
3.Impaired speed and smoothness of action
Answer: 2
120. When the left frontal lobe is damaged, aphasia occurs:
1.Motor
2.Sensory
3. Amnestic
Answer: 1
121. When cortical speech centers are damaged, the following occurs:
1.Aphonia
2.Anarthria
3.Aphasia
Answer: 3
122. When the left angular gyrus is damaged, the following occurs:
1.Agraphia
2.Alexia
3.Aphasia
Answer: 2
123. When the left supramarginal gyrus is damaged, the following occurs:
1.Apraxia
2.Agraphia
3.Aphasia
Answer: 1
124. Visual agnosia is observed with damage to:
1.Optic nerve
2.Occipital lobe
3.Visual radiance
Answer: 2
125. Auditory agnosia is observed with damage to:
1.Auditory nerve
2. Temporal lobes
3. Wernicke's cortical area
Answer: 2
Select all correct answers:
126. When the left temporal lobe is damaged, the following occurs:
1.Motor aphasia
2.Sensory aphasia
3. Amnestic aphasia
Answer: 2, 3
127. When the parietal cortex of the right hemisphere of the brain is damaged, the following occurs:
1.Anosognosia
2.Pseudomelia
3.Aphasia
4.Alexia
5. Autotopagnosia
Answer: 1, 2, 5
128. When the parietal cortex of the left hemisphere of the brain is damaged, the following occurs:
1.Motor aphasia
2.Acalculia
3.Apraxia
4.Alexia
5.Agnosia
Answer: 2, 3, 4
129. When the left frontal lobe is damaged, the following is impaired:
1.Letter
2.Reading
3. Expressive speech
Answer: 1, 3
130. When the left parietal lobe is damaged, apraxia occurs:
1. Ideation room
2.Motor
3.Constructive
Answer: 1, 2, 3
Match:
131. Type of aphasia: Clinical manifestations in the form of a disorder:
1. Motor A. naming objects
2.Sensory B.understanding of riddles, logical-grammatical
3.Amnestic designs
B. construction of phrasal speech
D.understanding simple instructions
D.recognition of objects
Answer: 1 - C. 2 - B, D. 3 - A.
132. Type of aphasia: Speech disorder:
1.Motor A.paraphasia
2.Sensory B.verbal embolus
3. Amnestic V. "word salad"
D. incorrect naming of objects
D. dysarthria
Answer: 1 - A, B. 2 - A, B. 3 - G.
133. Localization of the lesion: Symptom:
1.Supramarginal gyrus A.motor aphasia
2. Broca's area B. sensory aphasia
3. Wernicke's area V. apraxia
G.amnestic aphasia
Answer: 1 -. 2 - A. 3 - B.
134. Localization of the lesion: Symptom:
1. Middle frontal gyrus A. amnestic aphasia
2. Superior temporal gyrus B. agraphia
3. Angular gyrus B. astereognosis
G.Alexia
Answer: 1 - B. 2 - A. 3 - D.
135. Localization of the lesion: Symptom:
1. Inferior parietal lobule A. motor aphasia
2. Broca's area B. astereognosis
3. Angular gyrus B. acalculia
G.agraphia
Answer: 1 - B. 2 - A. 3 - B.
__Disorders of the autonomic nervous system
Choose one correct answer:
136. When the diencephalic region is damaged, the following occurs:
1. Gait disturbance
2. Violation of thermoregulation
3.Pain
Answer: 2
137. When the sympathetic trunk is damaged, the following occurs:
1.Epileptic seizures
2.Vasomotor disorders
3.Sleep disorders
Answer: 2
138. When the diencephalic region is damaged, the following occurs:
1.Sleep disorders
2.Pain
3.Sensitivity disorders
Answer: 1
139. When the hypothalamic region is damaged, the following occurs:
1.Vegetative paroxysms
2. Segmental autonomic disorders
3.Sensitivity disorders
Answer: 1
140. Damage to the solar plexus is characterized by:
1.Pain in the navel area
2.Polyuria
3.Mydriasis
4.Miosis
Answer: 1
Select all correct answers:
141. Temporal lobe epilepsy is characterized by the following symptoms:
1. The feeling of “already seen”
2. Olfactory hallucinations
3.Visceral crises
4. Sensitivity disorders of segmental type
5.Lack of abdominal reflexes
Answer: 1, 2, 3
142. Damage to the hypothalamic region is characterized by:
1. Violation of thermoregulation
2.Hemiparesis
3. Hemianesthesia
4.Sleep and wakefulness disorders
5. Neuroendocrine disorders
6. Increased blood pressure
7.Heart rhythm disturbances
8.Hyperhidrosis
Answer: 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
143. Damage to the hypothalamic region is characterized by:
1. Vegetative-vascular paroxysms
2. Sweating disorders
3.Diabetes insipidus
4. Facial nerve paresis
5.Hypalgesia by conduction type
6.Disturbances in the emotional sphere
7. Insomnia
8. Neurodermatitis
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 8
144. Damage to the stellate ganglion is characterized by:
1. Heart rhythm disturbances
2. Burning pain in the area of half the face, neck and upper limb
3.Hand paresis
4.Disturbed adaptation to pain
5.Pathological symptoms
6.Swelling in the area of half the face, neck and upper limb
7. Trophic disorders of the skin of the upper limb and half of the face
8.Vasomotor disorders in the half face area
Answer: 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 8
145. Horner syndrome is characterized by:
1.Exophthalmos
2.Ptosis
3.Miosis
4. Enophthalmos
5.Diplopia
6.Mydriasis
Answer: 2, 3, 4
146. General cerebral symptoms include:
1.Headache
2.Hemiparesis
3. Jacksonian epilepsy
4. Unsystematic dizziness
5.Vomiting
6.Generalized seizure
Answer: 1, 4, 5, 6
147. Focal neurological symptoms include:
1.Headache
2.Hemiparesis
3.Vomiting
4. Jacksonian epilepsy
5. Impaired consciousness
6. Impaired coordination
Answer: 2, 4, 6
148. Meningeal symptoms:
1.Kernig
2.Lasega
3.Neri
4. Rigidity of the neck muscles
5.Babinsky
6.Brudzinsky
Answer: 1, 4, 6
149. Signs of hypertension syndrome:
1.Headache in the morning
2.Headache in the evening
3.Bradycardia
4. Congestive optic disc
5.Primary optic disc atrophy
Answer: 1, 3, 4
150. Brown-Séquard syndrome is characterized by:
1. Central paresis on the affected side
2. Central paresis on the opposite side
3. Impairment of deep sensitivity on the affected side
4. Violation of deep sensitivity on the opposite side
5. Impaired pain sensitivity on the affected side
6. Impaired pain sensitivity on the opposite side
Answer: 1, 3, 6
QUALIFICATION TEST IN NEUROLOGY
Section 1. CLINICAL ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM. TOPICAL DIAGNOSTICS
01.1. When the abducens nerve is damaged, paralysis of the extraocular muscle occurs.
a) the upper straight line
b) outer straight line
c) bottom line
d) lower oblique
e) upper oblique
01.2. Mydriasis occurs when there is a lesion
a) the upper portion of the magnocellular nucleus of the oculomotor nerve
b) the lower portion of the magnocellular nucleus of the oculomotor nerve
c) parvocellular accessory nucleus of the oculomotor nerve
d) middle unpaired nucleus
e) nuclei of the medial longitudinal fasciculus
01.3. If the upper limit of conduction disorders of pain sensitivity is determined at the level of the T 10 dermatome, the spinal cord lesion is localized at the level of the segment
a) T 6 or T 7
b) T 8 or T 9
c) T 9 or T 10
d) T 10 or T 11
e) T 11 or T 12
01.4. With central paralysis there is
a) muscle atrophy
b) increased tendon reflexes
c) sensitivity disorder of the polyneuritic type
d) disorders of electrical excitability of nerves and muscles
e) fibrillary twitching
01.5. Choreic hyperkinesis occurs when there is a lesion
a) paleostriatum
b) neostriatum
c) medial globus pallidus
d) lateral globus pallidus
d) cerebellum
01.6. Deep sensory fibers for the lower extremities are located in a thin bundle of posterior funiculi in relation to the midline
a) laterally
b) medially
c) ventrally
d) dorsally
e) ventrolateral
01.7. Deep sensory fibers for the trunk and upper extremities are located in the wedge-shaped bundle of the posterior funiculi in relation to the midline
a) laterally
b) medially
c) ventrally
d) dorsally
e) ventromedial
01.8. Fibers of pain and temperature sensitivity (lateral lemniscus) join fibers of deep and tactile sensitivity (medial lemniscus)
a) in the medulla oblongata
b) in the pons of the brain
c) in the cerebral peduncles
d) in the optic thalamus
d) in the cerebellum
01.9. The main mediator of the inhibitory effect is
a) acetylcholine
c) norepinephrine
d) adrenaline
d) dopamine
01.10. All afferent pathways of the striopallidal system end
b) in the striatum
c) in the medial nucleus of the globus pallidus
d) in the subthalamic nucleus
d) in the cerebellum
01.11. Instability in the Romberg position when closing the eyes increases significantly if ataxia occurs.
a) cerebellar
b) sensitive
c) vestibular
d) frontal
d) mixed
01.12. Regulation of muscle tone by the cerebellum when the position of the body in space changes is carried out through
a) red nucleus
b) Lewis body
c) substantia nigra
d) striatum
e) blue spot
01.13. Binasal hemianopsia occurs with lesions
c) visual radiance
d) optic tracts
d) black substance
01.14. Compression leads to a concentric narrowing of the visual field
a) optic tract
b) optic chiasm
c) external geniculate body
d) visual radiance
d) black substance
01.15. When the optic tract is damaged, hemianopia occurs
a) binasal
b) homonymous
c) bitemporal
d) lower quadrant
e) upper quadrant
0116. Homonymous hemianopsia is not observed with the lesion
a) optic tract
b) optic chiasm
c) visual radiance
d) internal capsule
d) optic nerve
01.17. The pathway passes through the superior cerebellar peduncles
a) posterior spinocerebellar
b) anterior spinocerebellar
c) fronto-pontine-cerebellar
d) occipitotemporal pons-cerebellar
e) spinocerebellar
01.18. Olfactory hallucinations are observed when affected
a) olfactory tubercle
b) olfactory bulb
c) temporal lobe
d) parietal lobe
e) frontal lobe
01.19. Bitemporal hemianopsia is observed with lesions
a) central parts of the optic chiasm
b) external parts of the optic chiasm
c) visual tracts of the optic chiasm
e) frontal lobe
01.20. True urinary incontinence occurs when there is damage
a) paracentral lobules of the anterior central gyrus
b) cervical spinal cord
c) lumbar enlargement of the spinal cord
d) cauda equina spinal cord
e) pons brain
01.21. With paresis of upward gaze and convergence disorder, the focus is localized
a) in the upper parts of the pons of the brain
b) in the lower parts of the pons of the brain
c) in the dorsal part of the midbrain tegmentum
d) in the cerebral peduncles
d) in the medulla oblongata
01.22. Half the diameter of the spinal cord (Brown-Séquard syndrome) is characterized by central paralysis on the side of the lesion in combination
c) in the pons of the brain on the left
d) in the area of the apex of the pyramid of the left temporal bone
d) in the cerebral peduncle
01.25. A seizure begins from the toes of the left foot if the focus is located
a) in the anterior adversive field on the right
b) in the upper part of the posterior central gyrus on the right
e) in the middle section of the anterior central gyrus on the right
01.28. The cervical plexus is formed by the anterior branches of the spinal nerves and cervical segments
01.29. The brachial plexus forms the anterior branches of the spinal nerves
01.30. Nerve impulses are generated
a) cell nucleus
b) outer membrane
c) axon
d) neurofilaments
e) dendrites
01.31. Alexia is observed when affected
a) superior frontal gyrus
b) parahippocampal gyrus
c) thalamus
d) angular gyrus
e) pons brain
01.32. On a section of the lower part of the medulla oblongata, nuclei are not distinguished
a) tender and wedge-shaped
b) spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve
c) hypoglossal nerves
d) facial, abducens nerves
01.33. The brainstem pons includes
a) red kernels
b) nuclei of the trochlear nerve
c) nuclei of the oculomotor nerve
d) nuclei of the abducens nerve
e) nuclei of the hypoglossal nerves
01.34. Hemianesthesia, hemiataxia, hemianopsia are characteristic of the lesion
a) globus pallidus
b) caudate nucleus
c) red nucleus
d) thalamus
d) black substance
01.35. Damage to the cauda equina of the spinal cord is accompanied by
a) flaccid paresis of the legs and sensory impairment of the radicular type
b) spastic paresis of the legs and pelvic disorders
c) impaired deep sensitivity of the distal legs and urinary retention
d) spastic paraparesis of the legs without sensory disorders and dysfunction of the pelvic organs
e) impairment of deep sensitivity of the proximal legs and urinary retention
01.36. True astereognosis is caused by a lesion
a) frontal lobe
b) temporal lobe
c) parietal lobe
d) occipital lobe
d) cerebellum
01.37. Loss of the upper quadrants of the visual fields occurs with lesions
a) external parts of the optic chiasm
b) lingual gyrus
c) deep parts of the parietal lobe
d) primary visual centers in the thalamus
d) optic nerve
01.38. Astereognosis occurs when there is a lesion
a) lingual gyrus of the parietal lobe
b) superior temporal gyrus
c) inferior frontal gyrus
d) superior parietal lobule
d) cerebellum
01.39. Closure of the reflex arc from the biceps brachii tendon occurs at the level of the following segments of the spinal cord
01.40. Association fibers connect
a) symmetrical parts of both hemispheres
b) asymmetrical parts of both hemispheres
c) cortex with the visual thalamus and underlying sections (centrifugal and centripetal paths)
d) different parts of the cortex of the same hemisphere
d) cerebral peduncles
01.41. Patient with visual agnosia
a) sees surrounding objects poorly, but recognizes them
b) sees objects well, but the shape seems distorted
c) does not see objects in the periphery of the visual field
d) sees objects, but does not recognize them
e) sees surrounding objects poorly and does not recognize them
01.42. Patient with motor aphasia
a) understands spoken speech, but cannot speak
b) does not understand spoken speech and cannot speak
c) can speak, but does not understand spoken speech
d) can speak, but the speech is scanned
e) can speak, but does not remember the names of objects
a) cannot speak and does not understand spoken speech
b) understands spoken speech, but cannot speak
c) can speak, but forgets the names of objects
d) does not understand spoken speech, but controls his own speech
e) does not understand spoken speech and does not control his own
01.44. Amnestic aphasia is observed with lesions
a) frontal lobe
b) parietal lobe
c) the junction of the frontal and parietal lobes
d) the junction of the temporal and parietal lobes
e) occipital lobe
01.45. The combination of impaired swallowing and phonation, dysarthria, paresis of the soft palate, absence of the pharyngeal reflex and tetraparesis indicates a lesion
a) cerebral peduncle
b) pons brain
c) medulla oblongata
d) midbrain tegmentum
d) hypothalamus
01.46. The combination of paresis of the left half of the soft palate, deviation of the uvula to the right, increased tendon reflexes and pathological reflexes on the right extremities indicates a lesion
a) medulla oblongata at the level of the motor nucleus of the IX and X nerves on the left
b) medulla oblongata at the level of the XII nerve on the left
c) knee of the internal capsule on the left
d) posterior thigh of the internal capsule on the left
d) hypothalamus
01.47. In alternating Millard-Gubler syndrome, the focus is located
a) at the base of the cerebral peduncle
b) in the posterolateral part of the medulla oblongata
c) in the area of the red nucleus
d) at the base of the lower part of the pons
d) in the hypothalamus
01.48. Features of the pilomotor reflex disorder have topical and diagnostic significance in case of damage
a) quadrigeminal
b) medulla oblongata
c) hypothalamus
d) spinal cord
e) peripheral nerves
01.49. Lesions in the ventral half of the lumbar enlargement are not characterized by the presence
a) inferior flaccid paraparesis
b) disorders of pain sensitivity
d) sensitive ataxia of the lower extremities
e) preserved deep sensitivity
01.50. Oral automatism reflexes indicate damage to the tracts
a) corticospinal
b) corticonuclear
c) fronto-pontine-cerebellar
d) rubrospinal
e) spinocerebellar
01.51. The grasping reflex (Yaniszewski) is noted when affected
a) parietal lobe
b) temporal lobe
c) frontal lobe
d) occipital lobe
d) hypothalamus
01.52. Auditory agnosia occurs with damage
a) parietal lobe
b) frontal lobe
c) occipital lobe
d) temporal lobe
d) hypothalamus
01.53. Alternating Foville syndrome is characterized by simultaneous involvement of nerves in the pathological process
a) facial and abducens
b) facial and oculomotor
c) glossopharyngeal nerve and vagus
d) sublingual and accessory
e) additional and block
01.54. Jugular foramen syndrome is characterized by nerve damage
a) glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory
b) vagus, accessory, sublingual
c) accessory, glossopharyngeal, sublingual
d) vagus, facial, trigeminal
e) vagus, oculomotor, abducens
01.55. Constructive apraxia occurs when there is a lesion
a) frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere
b) frontal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere
e) occipital lobes
01.56. Body schema disorder is noted when affected
a) temporal lobe of the dominant hemisphere
b) temporal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere
c) parietal lobe of the dominant hemisphere
d) parietal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere
d) hypothalamus
01.57. Sensory aphasia occurs when there is a lesion
a) superior temporal gyrus
b) middle temporal gyrus
c) superior parietal lobule
d) inferior parietal lobule
d) hypothalamus
01.58. Motor apraxia in the left hand develops with the lesion
a) genu corpus callosum
b) trunk of the corpus callosum
c) thickening of the corpus callosum
d) frontal lobe
e) occipital lobe
01.59. The segmental apparatus of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is represented by neurons of the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of segments
01.60. The caudal section of the segmental apparatus of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is represented by neurons of the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of segments
a) L 4 -L 5 -S 1
b) L 5 -S 1 -S 2
01.61. The ciliospinal center is located in the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of the segments
Section 2. MEDICAL GENETICS
02.1. Proband is:
A. A patient who consults a doctor
B. A healthy person who applied for medical genetic consultation
B. A person who first came under the supervision of a geneticist
D. The person from whom the pedigree collection begins
02.02. With what type of inheritance are significantly more often patients born into families with consanguineous marriages:
A. X-linked recessive
B. Autosomal recessive
B. X-linked dominant
02.03. Siblings are:
A. All relatives of the proband
B. Proband's uncle
B. Parents of the proband
D. Brothers and sisters of the proband
02.04. The objects of study of clinical genetics are:
A. Sick person
B. The patient and sick relatives
B. The patient and all members of his family, including healthy ones
02.05. What is the probability of giving birth to a sick child by a woman who has a son and brother with hemophilia:
V. 100%
D. Close to 0%
02.06. Dolichocephaly is:
A. Long narrow skull with prominent forehead and nape
B. Increase in the longitudinal size of the skull relative to the transverse
B. An increase in the transverse size of the skull with a relative decrease in the longitudinal size
D. Expansion of the skull in the occipital region and narrowing in the frontal region
02.07. Epicanthus is:
A. Fused eyebrows
B. Wide-set eyes
B. Vertical skin fold at the inner corner of the eye
D. Narrowing of the palpebral fissure
02.08. Oligodactyly is:
A. Absence of fingers
B. Finger fusion
B. Missing one or more fingers
D. Increasing the number of fingers
02.09. Cryptorchidism is:
A. Non-closure of the urethra
B. Undescended testicles into the scrotum
B. Underdevelopment of the genital organs
02.10. Arachnodactyly is:
A. Shortening of fingers
B. Changing finger shapes
B. Increase in finger length
02.11. Syndactyly is:
A. Fusion of the limbs along the entire length
B. Fusion of the limb in the lower third
B. Finger fusion
02.12 Brachycephaly is:
A. Expansion of the skull in the occipital part and narrowing in the frontal part
B. “tower skull”
B. An increase in the transverse size of the head with a relative decrease in the longitudinal size
D. Increase in the longitudinal size of the skull relative to the transverse
02.13. Anophthalmia is:
A. Congenital absence of eyeballs
B. Congenital absence of the iris
B. Reduced distance between the inner corners of the eye sockets
02.14 Micrognathia is:
A. Small size of the lower jaw
B. Small size of the upper jaw
B. Small oral opening
02.15 Heterochromia of the iris is:
A. Abnormal color perception
B. Different colors of the iris
B. Differences in iris size
02.16 The most appropriate periods of pregnancy to study the level of alpha-fetoprotein in the blood:
A. 7-10 weeks
B. 16-20 weeks
B. 25-30 weeks
G. 33-38 weeks
02.17 Karyotype characteristic of Klinefelter syndrome:
47, ХХУ
47, XUU
46, XY
45, U
47, XXX
45, XO
47, ХХУ
46, XX / 47, XX + 13
46, XX, del(р5)
47, XX + 18
Down's disease
Edwards syndrome
Patau syndrome
Cystic fibrosis
Congenital malformations
45, X
47, XY + 21
45, 0U
47, ХХУ
Only for men
Only for women
In men and women
Prenatal diagnosis
Screening programs
Artificial insemination
is:
Cytochrome C
Prozerin
D-penicillamine
Nootropil
Hepatoprotectors
Hypotyrosinemia
Hypophenylalaninemia
Hypoceruloplasminemia
Hyper-3,4-dihydrophenylalaninemia
Reduced blood ceruloplasmin
Increased copper content in the liver
Decreased urinary copper excretion
Increase in "direct" blood copper
enzyme:
Galactokinases
Dehydropteridine reductase
Dystrophin
Ceruloplasmin
Transcription
Processing
Polyploidy
Broadcast
Replication
Phenotype
Genotype
Karyotype
Recombinant
Neurons
Hepatocytes
Zygotes
Gametes
Epithelial
Clinical and genealogical
Direct DNA probing
Microbiological
Cytological
Twin
Self-reproduction
Methylation
Nucleosome formation
Double-stranded structure
Apoptosis
Necrosis
Degeneration
Chromatolysis
Mutation
Chromosism
Polyploidy
Genetic load
Mosaicism
Disturbance in gene structure
Change in the number of chromosomes
Accumulation of intronic repeats
Change in chromosome structure
Genomic mutation
Gene mutation
Chromosomal mutation
Chromosomal mutations
Genomic mutations
Gene mutations
12,5%
As in the population
100%
Mendel
Beadle-Tatuma
Hardy-Weinberg
Morgana
Wright
02.40. The main objectives of medical genetics are to study
laws of heredity and variability of the human body
population statistics of hereditary diseases
molecular and biochemical aspects of heredity
changes in heredity caused by environmental factors
all of the above
detected in a heterozygous state
detected in a homozygous state
detected in hetero- and homozygous states
all of the above are false
by the action of a dominant gene
by the action of a recessive gene
by the action of both dominant and recessive genes
interaction of genotype with environmental factors
02.43. A karyotype is a set of features of the chromosome set of a cell, determined by:
number of sex chromosomes
chromosome shape
chromosome structure
all of the above
none of the above
predominantly affects males
prevalence of sick family members in the generation
manifestation of a pathological inherited trait in all generations without skipping
all of the above are true
the ratio of healthy and sick family members is 1:1
the disease is not related to consanguinity
the parents of the first identified patient are clinically healthy
all of the above is incorrect
the ratio of sick men in each generation is 2:1
only men get sick
only women get sick
signs of the disease are always found in the mother of the proband
mental development disorders
physical development disorders
multiple malformations
all listed
maternal somatic diseases
emotional stress
physical overload
viruses
all of the above factors
cerebrospinal pyramidal tracts
motor neurons of the anterior horns of the spinal cord
peripheral motor neuron
all of the above
none of the above
according to the autosomal dominant type
according to the autosomal recessive type
by recessive type associated with sex (X chromosome)
by dominant type associated with gender
with amyotrophy Charcot - Marie - Tuta
for hypertrophic neuropathy Dejerine - Sotta
at muscular dystrophy Erba
for Becker-Kinner muscular dystrophy
for Kugelberg-Welander amyotrophy
anterior horns of the spinal cord
peripheral motor nerves
muscles of the distal limbs
subcortical nuclei
increased ceruloplasmin levels and hypercupremia
decreased ceruloplasmin levels and hypercupremia
increased ceruloplasmin levels and hypocupremia
decreased ceruloplasmin levels and hypocupremia
plastic extrapyramidal rigidity
akinesia
hypomimia
dementia
02.55. In Friedreich's disease there is
recessive inheritance pattern
dominant mode of inheritance
sex-linked (via the X chromosome)
all of the above
foot deformities
dysraphic status
damage to the heart muscle
decreased or lost reflexes
all of the above
along the peripheral nerves
in the spinal canal along the roots
intracranial along the cranial nerves
in any of the specified areas
autosomal dominant
autosomal recessive
recessive, sex-linked (via the X chromosome)
all of the above is incorrect
rounded skull, gothic palate, syndactyly, muscle hypotonia
dolichocephaly, cleft palate, arachnodactyly, muscle hypertonicity
Craniostenotic skull, cleft lip, presence of 6th digit, choreoathetosis
a combination of any of the above symptoms is observed
fusion of cervical vertebrae
fusion of the 1st cervical vertebra with the occipital bone
downward displacement of the cerebellar tonsils
cleft arch of the 1st cervical vertebra
all of the above
only clinical symptoms
at the clinical, biochemical and cellular levels
only at certain stages of metabolism
only at the cellular level
characteristic clinical picture and biochemical analysis
clinical picture
clinical picture, hormonal profile studies, biochemical analysis and pathological examination
transfer of a section of one chromosome to another
change in DNA structure
interaction of genetic and environmental factors
deletion, duplication, translocation of chromosome sections
50%;
close to 0%;
75%;
25%.
patient complaints and family history data
characteristic combination of clinical signs
biochemical analysis
clinical symptoms, biochemical and pathomorphological studies
age of onset of disease
predominant defeat separate groups in the population
type of inheritance
nature of the mutation
biochemical analysis of urine and blood
examination data by an ophthalmologist, cardiologist and paraclinical research methods
clinical symptoms, studies of the concentration of Na and Cl ions in sweat fluid
characteristic clinical symptoms, electromyography data and determination of serum creatinine phosphokinase levels
50%;
25%;
100%.
50%;
25%;
100%.
02.70. Gene diseases due to:
loss of part of the chromosomal material
increase in chromosomal material
loss of two or more genes
single gene mutation
data for determining the concentration of Na and Cl ions in sweat fluid
characteristic neurological symptoms, time of onset and nature of the course, determination of the level of creatinine phosphokinase in the blood serum
examination by an ophthalmologist, neurologist, ultrasound data
histological examination results
50%;
25%;
75%.
primary gene effect
effect of environmental factors
presence of modifier genes
gene dosage effect
all of the above
lack of Mendelization
Children get sick more often
possibility of isolating individual forms with the effect of the main gene
predominant defeat of men
independence from degree of consanguinity
high frequency in the population
greater risk of developing the disease in relatives with a lower incidence of the disease in the population
phenylketonuria
Kleinfelter's syndrome
hypertonic disease
Arnold-Chiari malformation
spinal amyotrophy of Werdnig-Hoffmann
cleft lip, palate
Friedreich's foot
Marfan syndrome
trisomy 17
trisomy 18
deletion of chromosome 18
inversion of chromosome 17
trisomy 14
trisomy 13
deletion of chromosome 18
duplication of chromosome 18
primary amenorrhea
monosomy X
identifying symptoms from birth
short stature
all of the above
presence of phenylketonuria in one of the parents
carriage of a balanced chromosomal rearrangement in one of the parents
high levels of alpha-fetoprotein in the mother's blood
one of the parents has diabetes
primary amenorrhea
microorchidism
dolichocephaly, arachnodactyly
all of the above
violation of sexual differentiation
presence of enzymopathies
multiple congenital anomalies internal organs
no changes in karyotype
monosomy
egg
squamous epithelium
endothelium
neuron
myocyte
Down syndrome
"cry the cat" syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Marfan syndrome
chromosome size
location of the primary constriction
streaking in differential staining
all of the above
establishing the hereditary nature of the disease
establishing the type of inheritance
determining the circle of people who need a detailed examination
all of the above
none of the above
buccal test
biochemical
microbiological
population
immunofluorescence
genetic engineering
antibiotic therapy
limiting the introduction of a harmful product
replacement therapy
broadcast
inversion
mimicry
repolarization
extrapolation
hemophilia
Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome
Duchenne myopathy
neurofibromatosis
schizophrenia
aneuploidy
polysomy
polyploidy
inversion
telomere
centromere
satellite
chromosome arm
morganic
incest
inbreeding
polygamy
from 2 to 6 months
from 2 months to 1 year
from 2 months to 3 years
from 2 months to 5-6 years
all life
Mongoloid eye shape
mental retardation
speech disorders
congenital heart defects
pyramidal insufficiency
in boys
in persons of both sexes
only for adults
arachnodactyly
heart defects
subluxations of the lens
mental retardation
all the listed symptoms
absent
insignificant
significant
depends on the age of the parents
depends on the gender of the patient
02.100. The scapulohumeral-facial form of myopathy (Landouzi - Dezherina) has
autosomal dominant mode of inheritance
autosomal recessive mode of inheritance
autosomal recessive, X-linked type of inheritance
autosomal recessive and autosomal dominant mode of inheritance
type of inheritance unknown
TEST CONTROL IN NEUROLOGY
Option 9
Attention! For each question, select onlyone correct answer.
1. Polyneuropathies can develop with all of the following diseases: except:
a) diabetes mellitus
b) temporal arteritis
c) chronic alcohol intoxication
d) systemic lupus erythematosus
e) periarteritis nodosa
2. The etiological basis of chromosomal diseases are chromosomal and genomic mutations that occur only:
a) in germ cells
b) in germ cells and in the zygote
c) in somatic cells
d) in mesenchymal cells
3. Damage to the facial nerve is characterized by all of the following symptoms, except:
a) dysphagia
b) smoothness of the frontal and nasolabial folds
c) Bell's sign
d) eyelash symptom
e) hyperacusis
4. A 37-year-old alcoholic woke up feeling awkward in his right hand. Neurological examination revealed weakness of dorsiflexion of the hand. It probably damaged:
a) median nerve
b) brachioradial nerve
c) musculocutaneous nerve
d) radial nerve
e) ulnar nerve
5. Narcolepsy is characterized by all of the following symptoms:
a) bulimia
b) hypnogogic hallucinations
c) hypnopompic hallucinations
d) sleep attacks
e) cataplexy
6. Damage to the caudate nucleus (hypotonic-hyperkinetic syndrome) is characterized by all of the listed symptoms, except:
a) hypotension
b) athetosis
d) hemiballismus
e) ataxia
7. Congenital disease- This:
a) a disease caused by a gene mutation
b) a disease that manifests itself in the first year of a child’s life
c) a disease diagnosed at birth
d) a disease caused by a chromosomal mutation
e) a disease that manifests itself during the first 3 months of a child’s life
8. The polyneuropathic type of sensitivity disorder is characterized by all of the listed symptoms, except:
a) paresthesia
b) pain in the limbs
c) anesthesia in the distal segments of the limbs
d) hemianesthesia
e) symptoms of tension in the nerve trunks
9. All of the following symptoms are characteristic of sensory impairment with a lesion at the level of the thalamus, except:
a) impairment of superficial sensitivity on the opposite side
b) severe pain (hemialgia)
c) dynamic hemiataxia
d) phantom pain
e) violation of deep sensitivity on the opposite side
10. The probability of having a sick child in a family in which the mother has phenylketonuria and the father is homozygous for the normal allele is:
11. All of the listed symptoms are characteristic of bulbar palsy, except:
a) lack of pharyngeal reflex
b) symptoms of oral automatism
c) dysphagia
d) dysarthria
e) dysphonia
12. Damage to the frontal lobe is characterized by :
a) ataxia
b) euphoria, torpid psyche, asociality
c) astereognosis
d) hemianopsia
e) autotopagnosia
13. Choose the correct definition of the concept of “human genome”:
a) a set of nuclear DNA
b) chromosome set body
c) a set of translated DNA sections
d) a combination of nuclear and cytoplasmic DNA
e) a set of cytoplasmic DNA
14. When the anterior spinal roots C-5 – C-6 are affected, the following symptoms occur :
34. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is characterized by all of the listed signs, except:
a) headache and dizziness
b) disturbance of consciousness
c) meningeal syndrome
d) blood in the cerebrospinal fluid
e) protein-cell dissociation
35. The diagnosis of meningitis is established based on a combination of all of the listed symptoms, except:
a) general infectious syndrome
b) meningeal syndrome
c) pseudobulbar syndrome
d) syndrome of inflammatory changes in the cerebrospinal fluid
36. Which of the listed therapeutic measures is not used for the treatment of discogenic lumbosacral radiculopathy in spinal osteochondrosis in the acute period?
a) analgesics
b) diadynamic currents
c) non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
d) manual therapy
d) acupuncture
37. The most common characteristic of tuberculous meningitis is :
a) damage to the membranes of the base of the brain
b) damage to the membranes of the convexital surface of the brain
c) damage to the anterior roots
d) damage to the cauda equina
e) damage to the dorsal roots
38. Which of the following allows us to make a diagnosis of encephalitis:
a) damage to the cranial nerves
b) rough meningeal syndrome
c) absence of focal symptoms
d) focal symptoms
e) protein-cell dissociation in the cerebrospinal fluid
39. The effect of a mutant gene in monogenic pathology is manifested:
a) only clinical symptoms
b) replacement of similar sounds (paraphasia)
c) logorrhea
d) misunderstanding of the commands given
e) alienation of the meaning of words
55. Myopathy is characterized by all of the listed symptoms, except:
a) characteristic changes on the EMG
b) weakness of the proximal limbs
c) sensory disturbance
d) malnutrition
e) change in gait (“duck” gait)
56. Symptoms of a brain tumor are all of the following, except:
a) general cerebral
b) local
c) distant symptoms
d) increased protein content in the liquor
e) increased content of neutrophils in the cerebrospinal fluid
a) stenosis of the great vessels in the neck
b) decrease in perfusion pressure
c) decreased activity of the coagulation system
d) thromboembolism
64. On a computed tomogram of a patient with Huntington’s disease, atrophic areas in the brain are most often found in:
a) cerebellum
b) subthalamic nuclei
c) pillow
d) caudate nucleus
e) substantia nigra
65. Choose the most suitable remedy for the treatment of herpetic encephalitis:
a) cyclophosphamide
b) amphotericin B
c) gamma globulin
d) methotrexate
e) acyclovir
d) anticonvulsants
78. Motor aphasia is characterized by all of the following symptoms, except:
a) disturbance of spontaneous speech
b) speech embolus
c) understanding of addressed commands
d) difficulty in recalling an object in memory
79. A concussion is characterized by:
a) subarachnoid hemorrhage
b) retrograde amnesia
c) hemiparesis
d) upward gaze paresis
e) formation of the carotid-cavernous anastomosis
80. In subacute bacterial endocarditis, neurological disorders are caused by all of the above factors, except:
a) formation of blood clots in the internal carotid artery
b) vasculitis of the common carotid artery
c) thrombosis of the sagittal sinus
d) malformation of the galenic vein
81. During an attack of generalized epilepsy, changes in the pupils are characterized by:
a) anisocoria
b) narrowing
c) expansion
d) none of the above
e) deformation
82. What characteristic symptom can occur with fractures of the base of the skull?
a) liquorrhea
b) dissociated sensitivity disorders
c) paralysis of limbs
d) logorrhea
e) hyperkinesis
83. Peripheral paralysis is characterized by all of the listed symptoms, except:
a) clonus of the hands and feet
b) muscle hypotonia
d) muscle wasting
84. Migraine is characterized by all of the following symptoms: except:
a) family character
b) one-sidedness
c) throbbing pain
d) frequency of occurrence
d) deterioration with age
85. All of the above reflects the advantages of magnetic resonance imaging over computed tomography, except:
a) improved image of the craniospinal region
b) better recognition of thin cracks of the temporal bones
c) better recognition of foci of demyelination in multiple sclerosis and other demyelinating diseases
d) pronounced contrast between the gray and white matter of the brain, including the structures formed by them
e) elimination of ionizing radiation
86. Positron emission tomography (PET) is used for:
a) identification of tumor type
b) determining the duration of cerebral infarction
c) determining the source of intracranial hemorrhage
d) determining the basis of peripheral nerve damage
e) studies of the substrate absorbed by the brain
87. The nature of visual disturbances in cases of damage to the posterior cerebral artery:
a) homonymous hemianopsia
b) bitemporal hemianopsia
c) binasal hemianopsia
d) concentric narrowing of visual fields
e) scotoma
88. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs is absolutely contraindicated during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effect?
a) lamotrigine
b) diphenin
c) carbamazepine
d) lorazepam
e) phenobarbital
89. Damage to which spinal cord structures is typical for an extramedullary tumor?
a) optic nerves and pyramidal tracts
b) optic nerves and posterior columns
c) pyramidal and spinothalamic tracts
d) posterior and anterior horns of the spinal cord
d) none of the above
90. Blunt trauma elbow may cause:
a) drooping hand
b) weakness of the abductor pollicis brevis muscle
c) “clawed paw”
d) supination of the hand
e) limited pronation of the forearm
91. Café au lait spots are areas of hyperpigmentation that occur with:
a) tuberous sclerosis
b) neurofibromatosis
c) multiple sclerosis
d) Sturge-Weber syndrome
e) ataxia – telangiectasia
92. Parkinsonism is characterized by all of the following symptoms, except:
a) muscle hypotonia
b) amimia
c) muscle rigidity (cogwheel symptom)
d) bradykinesia
d) propulsion
93. Indicate the position characterizing the autosomal dominant type of inheritance:
a) the parents of a sick child are phenotypically healthy, but similar diseases occur in the proband’s siblings
b) a son never inherits diseases from his father
c) mostly men are affected
d) the disease is transmitted from parents to children in every generation
e) a sick father does not transmit the disease to his children
94. Risk factors for the development of cerebral infarction are all except:
a) hypothyroidism
b) hypercholesterolemia
c) atrial fibrillation
d) hypertension
d) smoking
95. Synonym for the concept of “cytoplasmic heredity”:
a) X – linked dominant inheritance
b) mitochondrial inheritance
c) chromosomal microdeletions
d) holandric inheritance
e) X – linked recessive inheritance
96. Diagnostic criteria neurofibromatosis:
a) congenital heart defect and malformation of the radius and its derivatives
b) multiple pigment spots on the skin, tumors of the skin, subcutaneous and along the nerve fibers, scoliosis, optic nerve gliomas
c) seborrheic adenoma on the cheeks, depigmented spots, “coffee” spots, seizures, mental retardation
e) ataxia, cardiomyopathy, Friedreich's foot
97. Peripheral paralysis is characterized by all of the listed symptoms, except:
a) spastic tone
b) muscle hypotonia
c) decreased tendon reflexes
d) muscle wasting
e) “bioelectric silence” on EMG
98. Cerebrospinal fluid with purulent meningitis is characterized by all of the following, except:
a) transparent
b) yellowish-green
c) neutrophilic pleocytosis is detected
d) an increase in protein is detected
d) increase in pressure
99. Damage to the occipital lobe is characterized by :
a) visual agnosia
b) paresthesia
c) motor aphasia
d) central paralysis of the arm
d) euphoria
100. Which disease is not subject to mass biochemical screening:
a) cystic fibrosis
b) phenylketonuria
c) congenital hypothyroidism
d) galactosemia
e) “cry of the cat” syndrome
ANSWERS TO TEST QUESTIONS
Option 5
1. b 37. a 73. c
2. b 38. d 74. g
3. a 39. b 75. c
4. g 40. a 76. g
5. a 41. a 77. a
7. c 43. b 79. b
8.g 44.g 80.g
9. g 45. g 81. c
10. b 46. d 82. a
13. g 49. g 85. b
14. at 50. at 86. d
15. d 51. b 87. a
17. a 53. d 89. c
18. in 54. a 90. in
19. c 55. c 91. b
22.g 58.a 94.a
23. g 59. a 95. b
24. a 60. c 96. b
26. g 62. a 98. a
