home Audience 4 Certification questions for an otolaryngologist nurse. Tests in otorhinolaryngology for students. What groups are the internal muscles of the larynx divided into?

Certification questions for an otolaryngologist nurse. Tests in otorhinolaryngology for students. What groups are the internal muscles of the larynx divided into?

TESTS IN OTHRINOLARYNGOLOGY FOR STUDENTS.

(=#) SECTION 1. ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, DISEASES OF THE NOSE AND PARONAL SINUSES.
001. List the turbinates of the nose:

a) Upper, lower, middle;

b) Upper, lower, medial;

c) Upper, lower;

d) Lateral, medial;

e) Lateral, lower.

002. The nasal septum is formed by:

a) Triangular cartilage, ethmoid labyrinth, vomer;

b) Perpendicular plate ethmoid bone, vomer, quadrangular cartilage;

c) Palatine bone, vomer, quadrangular cartilage.

003. List the main functions of the nose:

a) Protective, respiratory, reflex, olfactory;

b) Gustatory, excretory, respiratory, resonator;

c) Olfactory, transport, reflex, calorific, immune.

004. Therapeutic tactics for inflammatory diseases of the paranasal sinuses complicated by intracranial complications:

a) Puncture of the affected sinus and lavage, antibacterial, dehydration, detoxification therapy;

b) Sinus puncture, administration of antibiotics into the sinus, intramuscular antibiotics, detoxification therapy;

c) Puncture and drainage of the sinus, intravenous administration large doses of antibiotics, lumbar puncture, dehydration therapy;

d) Surgical sanitation of the affected sinus, antibacterial, detoxification, dehydration therapy.
005. What epithelium covers the respiratory area of the nasal mucosa?

a) Multilayer flat;

b) Multi-row flat;

c) Cylindrical multirow ciliated;

d) Cubic.
006. What are the causes of a nasal boil?

a) Inflammation of the hair follicle;

b) Diabetes mellitus;

c) Traumatization of the nasal vestibule;

d) Hematogenous introduction of infection;

d) Chronic tonsillitis.

007. List the paranasal sinuses:

a) Maxillary;

b) Sigmoid;

c) Frontal;

d) Lattice;

d) Main.

008. What parts are distinguished in the external nose, except:

a) Tip;

b) Root;

d) Wings.

009. Name the main symptoms of nasal injury, except:

a) Pain;

b) Nosebleeds;

c) Attacks of sneezing;

d) Deformation of the external nose;

e) Impaired respiratory function.

010. Basic therapeutic measures for nasal injuries, except:

a) Stop bleeding;

b) Fixation of bone fragments;

c) Primary wound treatment;

d) Correction of deformation of the external nose;

e) Antibacterial therapy.

011. What walls does the nasal cavity have, except:

a) Lower;

b) Partition;

c) Upper;

d) Medial;

a) Posterior rhinoscopy, digital examination;

b) Anterior rhinoscopy;

c) X-ray, posterior rhinoscopy, digital examination, probing;

d) Indirect laryngoscopy;

d) Probing.

008. Please indicate characteristic causes recurrence of adenoids:

a) Violation of protein metabolism in the body;

b) Allergic reactivity of the body, technical errors when performing adenotomy;

c) Technical errors when performing adenotomy;

d) Removal of the tonsil in early childhood.
009. Specify the most characteristic objective signs of chronic adenoiditis:

a) “Grey” and “white” Vojacek spots on the mucous membrane of the nose;

b) Mucous or mucous-purulent discharge in the nose;

c) Thickening of the side ridges;

d) Smoothness of the central sulcus;

e) Gothic palate, mucous or mucopurulent discharge in the nose, thickening of the lateral ridges.

010. Symptoms for ulcerative-necrotizing tonsillitis, except:

a) The presence of an ulcer at the upper pole of the tonsils;

b) Dirty - gray coating color;

V) Putrid smell from mouth;

d) No pain;

e) Grayish-yellow coating.

011. Specify the formations where foreign bodies are most often retained in the laryngopharynx, except:

a) Palatine tonsils;

b) Valeculae;

c) Lingual tonsil;

d) Laryngeal ventricles;

e) Pyriform sinuses.

012. Specify the clinical forms of vulgar tonsillitis, except:

a) Catarrhal;

b) Follicular;

c) Lacunar;

d) Phlegmonous;

d) Gangrenous.

013. What infectious diseases can occur with sore throat, with the exception of:

a) Mononucleosis;

b) Diphtheria;

c) Scarlet fever;

e) Epidemic meningitis.

014. Specify the muscles that lift the pharynx, except:

a) Stylopharyngeal;

b) Palatopharyngeal;

c) Palatal - lingual;

d) Pharyngeal constrictors;

d) Tongue - pharyngeal.

015. List conservative methods of treating chronic tonsillitis, except:

a) Washing lacunae;

b) Rinsing and soaking the tonsils with medicinal substances;

c) Physiotherapy;

d) Hyposensitizing therapy;

e) Removal of tonsils.

016. Methods for examining the pharynx include, with the exception of:

a) Posterior rhinoscopy;

b) Mesopharyngoscopy;

c) Digital examination of the nasopharynx;

d) Indirect laryngoscopy;

d) Tracheobronchoscopy.

017. Specify the main functions of the Waldeyer-Pirogov lymphadenoid pharyngeal ring, except:

a) Accommodation;

b) Reflex;

c) Protective;

d) Immunological;

d) Hematopoietic.

018. Therapeutic tactics for peritonsillar abscess, except:

a) Diagnostic puncture;

b) Mouth rinse;

c) Opening the abscess;

d) Conservative therapy;

e) Abscessonsillectomy.

019. List the layers of the pharynx, except:

a) Mucous membrane;

b) Fibrous layer;

c) Vascular layer;

d) Muscles of the pharynx;

e) Fascia of the pharynx.

020. List the most common symptoms of a foreign body cervical spine esophagus, except:

a) Pain when swallowing;

d) Increased salivation;

e) Refusal to eat.

021. Specify methods for diagnosing foreign bodies in the cervical esophagus, except:

a) Indirect pharyngolaryngoscopy;

b) Survey radiography of the cervical esophagus according to Zemtsov;

c) Contrast radiography of the esophagus;

d) Fibroesophagoscopy;

e) Rigid esophagoscopy.

022. List possible complications arising from long stay in the esophagus of a foreign body and during its removal, except:

a) Esophagitis, abscess of the esophageal wall;

c) Perforation of the esophageal wall;

d) Mediastinitis;

e) Spontaneous pneumothorax.

023. List the most common clinical and radiological signs of parapharyngeal abscesses, except:

a) Neck asymmetry;

b) infiltration and pain of neck tissue, often one-sided;

c) Hyperemia;

d) On a radiograph of the neck according to Zemtsov, there is expansion of the prevertebral space and the presence of gas bubbles;

e) Stiff neck.

024. Specify the symptoms of juvenile angiofibroma

nasopharynx, except:

a) Difficult nasal breathing;

b) Nosebleeds;

c) Gothic sky, facial deformation;

d) Replacement of surrounding tissues.

025. What blood diseases are observed

secondary sore throats, with the exception of:

a) Agranulocytosis;

b) Leukemia;

c) Nutritional - toxic aleukia;

d) Capillary toxicosis.

026. Name the degree of enlargement of the nasopharyngeal

tonsils, except:

b) 2st;

c) 3st;
027. Name the vessels and nerves passing through the parapharyngeal space, except:

a) External carotid artery, vertebral artery;

b) Internal carotid artery;

c) Internal jugular artery;

d) Vagus nerve.
028. In what areas of the esophagus are the deepest chemical burns observed, except:

a) In places of physiological constrictions;

c) Mucosa of the esophagus.

(=#) SECTION 3. ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, DISEASES OF THE LARRYN.
001. Name the upper and lower boundaries of the larynx:

a) Epiglottis;

b) Vestibular folds and VI cervical vertebra;

d) Epiglottis and VII cervical vertebra;

e) IV and VI cervical vertebrae;

f) VII cervical vertebra and thyroid cartilage.

002. What type of tracheotomy is performed for laryngeal stenosis in children?

a) Lower tracheotomy;

b) Upper tracheotomy;

c) Medium tracheotomy;

d) Conicotomy.
003. Name the boundaries of the trachea:

a) VI cervical vertebra, V thoracic vertebra;

b) VII cervical vertebra, IV-V thoracic vertebrae;

c) V thoracic vertebra and V cervical vertebra;

d) Bottom edge thyroid cartilage and V cervical vertebra;

e) The lower edge of the thyroid cartilage and the VI cervical vertebra.

004. What groups are they divided into? internal muscles larynx?

a) Elevating and depressing the larynx;

005. In which part of the larynx is the lymphatic network most pronounced?

a) Vestibular department;

b) Middle section;

c) Subglottic region.

006. Which muscle expands the larynx?

a) Shield - cricoid;

b) Scutellum - internal arytenoid;

c) Posterior scoop - cricoid muscle;

d) Thyroid - sublingual.

007. List the main functions of the larynx:

c) Reflex, protective;

e) Respiratory, reflex.

008. The classification of laryngeal cancer includes:

a) 4 stages;

b) 3 stages;

c) 2 stages;

d) 5 stages.
009. Specify the signs of mutational changes in the larynx in young men:

a) A decrease in the angle between the plates of the thyroid cartilage, a protruding upper edge of the thyroid cartilage, an increase in the hyoid bone;

b) Enlargement of the hyoid bone, the laryngeal mucosa is clearly hyperemic, non-closure of the glottis, changes in the strength and timbre of the voice;

c) The laryngeal mucosa is clearly hyperemic, the glottis is not closed, there is a change in the strength and timbre of the voice;

d) Painful swallowing;

e) Cough and hemoptysis.

010. Name the joints of the larynx:

a) Aerial - supraglottic;

b) Signet ring - thyroid, scoop - epiglottis;

c) Signet - arytenoid, signet - thyroid;

d) Shield - supraglottic;

d) Epiglottic - cricoid.

011. Name precancerous diseases of the larynx, except:

a) Papilloma;

b) Fibroma;

c) Tuberculosis;

d) Ventricular cysts;

d) Angioma.

012. Clinical picture Chondroperichondritis of the larynx is characterized by, except:

a) Pain in the larynx, painful swallowing;

b) An increase in the volume of the larynx, thickening of its cartilage;

c) Swelling and infiltration of the laryngeal mucosa;

d) The presence of films of a gray-dirty color in the larynx and pharynx;

e) Impaired laryngeal mobility and stenosis.

013. Laryngoscopy picture in acute laryngitis, except:

a) Infiltration of the mucous membrane;

b) Pinpoint hemorrhages;

d) Swelling of the folds;

e) Singers' nodules.

014. Name the causes of acute laryngitis, except:

a) Infectious diseases;

b) Hypothermia;

d) Occupational hazards;

d) Sore throats.

015. Which cartilages of the larynx are hyaline, except:

a) Thyroid;

b) Arytenoid;

c) Horn-shaped;

d) Epiglottis;

d) Cricoid.

016. Name the external muscles of the larynx, except:

a) Sternum - sublingual;

b) Shield - cricoid;

c) Foreoarytenoid;

e) Sternum - thyroid;

f) Thyroid - sublingual.

017. What is the vestibule of the larynx formed by, except:

a) Valeculae;

b) Epiglottis;

c) The aryle - the supraglottic fold;

d) Arytenoid cartilages;

e) Ventricular folds.

018. Treatment method for acute laryngitis, except:

a) Antibacterial;

b) Infusion of medicinal substances into the larynx;

c) Inhalation;

d) Cauterization of the mucous membrane;

e) Decongestant therapy.

019. Name the clinical forms of chronic laryngitis, except:

a) Catarrhal laryngitis;

b) Subglottic laryngitis;

c) Hyperplastic laryngitis;

d) Atrophic laryngitis;

e) Hypertrophic laryngitis.

020. How is the larynx innervated, except:

a) Superior laryngeal nerve;

b) Vagus nerve;

c) Tongue - pharyngeal nerve, hypoglossal nerve;

d) Inferior laryngeal nerve.
021. Name the forms of chronic hypertrophic laryngitis, except:

a) Limited;

b) Hypertrophic;

c) Diffuse.

022. Specify the anatomical formations of the middle part of the larynx, except:

a) Vestibular folds;

c) Scoop, epiglottis;

d) Laryngeal ventricles.
023. What diseases cause infectious granulomas of ENT organs, except:

a) Tuberculosis;

b) Wegener's granulomatosis;

c) Syphilis;

d) Scleroma;

d) Lupus.

024. State the reason false croup, except:

a) Allergic background;

b) Exudative diathesis;

c) Adenoids;

d) Adenoviral infection.
025. K diagnostic methods for foreign bodies of the trachea and bronchi include, except:

a) X-ray;

b) Tomography;

c) Direct laryngoscopy;

d) Tracheobrochoscopy.
026. In what areas of the respiratory tract are scleroma infiltrates and scars localized, except:

a) Entrance to the nose;

c) Nasopharynx;

d) Laryngopharynx, epiglottis;

e) Subglottic region of the larynx, tracheal bifurcation.

(=#) SECTION 4. ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND EAR DISEASES.
001. What is recorded by the semicircular canals:

a) Centrifugal acceleration;

b) Rectilinear movement;

c) Centripetal acceleration;

d) Angular accelerations;

e) Earth's gravity.

002. The etiological factor for mucosal otitis is:

a) Yeast-like fungi;

b) Molds;

c) Viridans streptococcus;

d) Mucous streptococcus;

e) Staphylococcus aureus.

003. In what part of the cranial cavity does the cochlear aqueduct open?

a) Anterior cranial fossa;

b) Posterior cranial fossa;

c) Middle cranial fossa;

d) Diamond-shaped fossa;

e) Sylvian aqueduct.

004. What is an adequate stimulus for the semicircular canals and what is the threshold of its excitability?

a) Angular acceleration 2 - 3 degrees per second;

b) Angular acceleration 4 - 5 degrees per second;

c) Straight-line acceleration 4 - 5 degrees per second;

d) Straight-line acceleration 2 - 3 degrees per second;

e) Angular acceleration 1 - 2 degrees per second.

005. In what frequency zone does the human ear hear tones best?

a) 50 Hz - 100 Hz;

b) 8000 - 10000 Hz;

c) 800 Hz - 2000 Hz;

d) 10000 - 13000 Hz;

e) 10 - 50 Hz.

006. What surgical procedure is performed for acute purulent otitis, complicated by mastoiditis, subperiosteal abscess?

a) Paracentesis of the eardrum;

b) General cavity surgery on the ear;

c) Antrotomy;

d) Atticotomy;

e) Antromastoidotomy.

007. How many openings do the semicircular canals open into the vestibule?

a) Four holes;

b) Five holes;

c) Two holes;

d) One hole;

d) Three holes.

008. What movements are recorded by the vestibule apparatus?

a) Linear acceleration, acceleration due to gravity;

b) Angular acceleration, linear acceleration;

c) Gravity acceleration, angular acceleration;

d) Earth's gravity, angular acceleration;

e) Linear acceleration, angular acceleration.

009. Specify patients with malignant diseases ENT - organs of clinical group II?

a) Incurable;

b) Those who received the course combination treatment with complete tumor regression;

c) After ablastic surgical removal of the tumor and lymph nodes;

d) Primary patients of stages I - II - III - IV without distant metastases;

d) Having a relapse of the disease.

010. What parts does the outer ear consist of, except:

a) Auricle;

b) External auditory canal;

c) Eardrum;

d) Tympanic cavity, Eustachian tube.
011. What parts does the stapes consist of, except:

a) Head;

c) Foot plate;

d) Handle.
012. How is the direction of nystagmus determined?

a) For the fast component;

b) By the slow component;

c) Looking straight;

d) Looking up;

d) Look down.

013. How many degrees of torso deviation are distinguished using the Vojacek test?

a) One degree;

b) Two degrees;

c) Three degrees;

d) Four degrees;

e) Five degrees.

014. What parts does the ear canal consist of?

a) Membranous;

b) Cartilaginous;

c) Membranous - cartilaginous and bone;

c) Atrophy and thinning of the eardrum;

d) Hyperemia of the tense part of the eardrum;

e) The light cone is well defined.

018. Necrolysis of what tissue occurs in children early age in the middle ear?

a) Connective;

b) Epithelium;

c) Myxoid;

d) Cartilaginous;

d) Bone.

019. Name the muscles of the eardrum:

b) Stapes, a muscle that stretches the tympanic membrane;

c) Tailoring;

d) Lateral, muscle that tightens the tympanic membrane.
020. What is related to the vestibular analyzer?

a) Vestibule, semicircular canals;

b) Semicircular canals;

c) Cape;

d) Snail;

d) Organ of Corti.

021. What fluids are present in the inner ear?

a) Perilymph, endolymph;

b) Blood plasma;

c) Exudate;

d) Endolymph;

d) Transudate.

022. Specify the causes of auricular liquorrhea:

a) Traumatic brain injury, injury to the dura mater during ear surgery, chronic purulent-destructive otitis media, tumors involving the dura mater in the process and causing its destruction;

b) Hydrocephalus;

c) Trauma to the dura mater during ear surgery;

d) Tumors of the anterior lobe of the brain;

e) Chronic purulent-destructive otitis, tumors involving the dura mater in the process and causing its destruction.

023. Specify the main instrumental and invasive methods for diagnosing otogenic abscess of the temporal lobe of the brain:

a) Spinal puncture;

b) Rheoencephalography;

c) M - echoscopy, electroencephalography;

d) Carotid angiography, CT scan, M - echoscopy, electroencephalography;

e) X-ray of the skull.

024. Among infectious otitis, the most severe necrotic changes are observed in patients:

a) Scarlet fever, measles;

b) Flu, scarlet fever;

Which ENT organ is most often affected by malignant tumors?
Answer: Larynx

101. Note the order in which ear symptoms appear in case of chemodectoma of the middle ear.
Answer: Noise, decreased hearing, hyperemia and protrusion of the eardrum, polyp ear canal, bleeding

102. What is simulation
Answer: Exaggeration of existing disease

103. On which wall of the tympanic cavity is the gap between the scaly and petrous parts located? temporal bone?
Answer: on the top.

104. What anatomical structures are not part of the middle ear?
Answer: organ of Corti.

105. What shape does the eardrum have in an adult?
Answer: oval.

106. What covers the oval window?
Answer: foot plate of the stirrup.

107. What is the thickest wall of the frontal sinus?
Answer: front

108. Deoxygenated blood from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses flows into:
Answer: system of the anterior facial and orbital veins.

109. The upper wall of the nasal cavity is formed by:
Answer: cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone.

110. In which direction will the nystagmus be directed when the left labyrinth is stimulated by hot calorification:
Answer: The fast component of nystagmus is directed to the left.

111. Secondary neurons of the vestibular apparatus connect to:
Answer: cores oculomotor nerves, vagus nerve, cerebellum, anterior horns spinal cord, cerebral cortex.

112. On the medial wall of the tympanic cavity are:
Answer: vestibule and ampulla of the horizontal semicircular canal.

113. The boundaries of the lateral parapharyngeal space are not:
Answer: sternomastoid muscle.

114. The following formations pass along the lateral parapharyngeal space, except:
Answer: sternomastoid muscle.

115. Peritonsillar tissue is -
Answer: Fiber of the palatine tonsil.

116. The pharynx is innervated by the following branches except:
Answer: trigeminal

117. Reactive deviations of the muscles of the trunk and limbs are directed to:
Answer: towards the slow component of nystagmus.

118. To identify nystagmus, the patient’s gaze is fixed towards the nystagmus component:
Answer: fast.

119. Optokinetic nystagmus occurs due to:
Answer: visual irritation from moving objects.

120. In which coil of the cochlea are low-pitched sounds perceived?
Answer: in the top.

121. What is the name of the experiment in a comparative tuning fork study of hearing from the mastoid process and the tragus of the auricle?
Answer: Lewis-Federici experiment.

122. It is not typical for an abscess of the frontal lobe of the brain:
Answer: ataxia.

123. Rhinogenic complications of cavernous sinus thrombosis:
Answer: disturbance of consciousness.

124. Retropharyngeal abscess most often occurs in:
Answer: no dependence on age.

125. For what ear diseases does a Carhart wave appear on the audiogram?
Answer: +For otosclerosis

126. It is contraindicated for a patient with hypertension to soak tampons during nosebleeds:
Answer: Ephedrine solution.

127. What is the nature of dizziness in Meniere's disease?
Answer: systemic.

128. What symbol does T correspond to if a patient’s primary tumor affects 2 anatomical parts of any ENT organ?
Answer: T2

129. How pronounced is the air-bone gap on the audiogram in occupational hearing loss?
Answer: available for mid frequencies.

130. What are the most common causes of local nosebleeds?
Answer: injuries, foreign bodies, nasal tumors, atrophic processes.

131. For profuse nosebleeds use:
Answer: anterior and posterior tamponade.

132. How many times is the area of the tympanic membrane greater than the area of the footplate of the stapes?
Answer: 17 times

133. What is the average speaking strength?
Answer: 60db

134. Experience with comparative study air and bone conduction is called:
Answer: Rinne

135. It is not typical for otogenic meningitis:
Answer: + bradycardia.

136. Next local symptoms not observed in cavernous sinus thrombosis:
Answer: facial nerve paresis.

137. It is not typical for otogenic brain abscess:
Answer: tachycardia.

138. Which sinus is affected first in otogenic sinus thrombosis?
Answer: sigmoid.

139. Most often, labyrinthitis occurs:
Answer: with epitympanitis.

140. Intracranial complications mainly develop in diseases:
Answer: middle ear

141. Where does pus accumulate in an extradural abscess?
Answer: between the dura mater and bone

142. To what formations can a thrombus from the sigmoid sinus spread in the cranial direction?
Answer: to the cavernous sinus

143. The function of which cranial nerves can be impaired with an abscess of the frontal lobe in an obvious stage
Answer: oculomotor

144. Foreign bodies nasal cavities must be removed
Answer: blunt hook

145. Difficulty in nasal breathing is a symptom of the following diseases, except:
Answer: perforation of the nasal septum in the cartilaginous region

146. How much fluid does the mucous membranes of the nose and sinuses secrete per day in a healthy person?
Answer: 5000 ml

147. With injury to which wall of the nose and paranasal sinuses does nasal liquorrhea develop?
Answer: cribriform plate and posterior wall of the frontal sinus

148. The otolith apparatus receptor is located in:
Answer: sacs in the vestibule of the labyrinth

149. The membranous labyrinth is filled with:
Answer: endolymph

150. In case of chronic purulent epitympanitis with suppurating cholesteatoma, the following is routinely indicated:
Answer: surgery OK - planned scanning radical surgery with antibiotic therapy

151. Patient K., 23 years old, complains of nasal congestion, hearing loss,
noise in ears. She had a history of acute respiratory viral infection about a week ago. Upon inspection:
AD -AS Mt slightly pink, vascular injection along the handle of the malleus.
ShR -4m, the nasal mucosa is hyperemic, swollen, the discharge is mucopurulent in nature.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: 2-sided tubotympanitis

152. A patient consulted an otorhinolaryngologist with complaints of severe itching in the ears, periodically turning into a feeling of pain. There is a history of exacerbation in the form of external diffuse otitis several times. During otoscopy: AD -AS - the auditory canals are filled with plates of dry epidermis, in places peeling off in the form of casts. After their removal, Mt- gray on both sides without identifying marks, slightly covered with “fluff”.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Fungal external otitis

153. Patient G. consulted a doctor with complaints of a feeling of stuffiness in the left ear, decreased hearing, tinnitus (low-frequency), a feeling of fluid transfusion in the ear, and autophony. On otoscopy: AD -AS - ear canals - free, Mt - gray on the left, slightly bulging. ShR- 3m. Mt - gray on the right. Rhinoscopy: The nasal mucosa is somewhat subatrophic, the nasal septum is curved to the right, in the form of a ridge at the level of the lower nasal passage.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Mucosal otitis media

154. The patient consulted a doctor complaining of severe pain in her right ear. From the anamnesis, she became acutely ill after suffering an acute respiratory infection. Ear pain appeared at night and suddenly radiated to the throat and head. The pain in my ear was unbearable. On otoscopy: AD -AS - ear canals are free, Mt - on the left is gray, Mt - on the right is bulging, there are no identifying points, the eardrum is sharply hyperemic. Rhinoscopy: The nasal mucosa is moderately swollen, mucopurulent discharge in the common nasal passage.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Acute otitis media

155. The patient came to the emergency room complaining of severe pain in the ear. Considers himself sick within 3 days after the onset of ARVI symptoms. On otoscopy: AS - ear canal is free, Mt - gray on the left, AD - ear canal is narrowed in the bony part due to a bulging bullous formation filled with hemorrhagic contents localized on back wall auditory canal with transition to the eardrum.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Bullous otitis media

156. The patient complains about severe pain in the ear on the left, radiating to the temporal and parietal region, aggravated by chewing, increasing the temperature to 37.7? C. During otoscopy: AS - in the ear canal - a cone-shaped elevation is determined on the anterior wall, the skin on its surface is hyperemic. In the center of the formation there is a purulent head, the lumen of the auditory canal is narrowed and Mt is immense. An enlarged lymph node is palpated in front of the auricle.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Furuncle of the anterior wall of the external auditory canal.

157. The patient complains of ear pain and mucopurulent discharge.
He does not notice any hearing loss. The condition and health are satisfactory, the temperature is subfebrile. The illness started about a week ago. The onset of the disease is associated with traumatic removal of sulfur deposits (hairpin). I treated myself at home, but without effect. Otoscopy: AD-AS - the lumens of the auditory canals are narrowed, filled with mucopurulent discharge, after using the toilet it was only possible to insert a narrow funnel. Mt - on the right - gray, cloudy, on the left - slightly pink.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: 2-sided external diffuse otitis

158. The patient complains of severe pain in the right ear, radiating to the temple, ear congestion, headache, and fever up to 38 degrees. From the anamnesis - she was sick for 2 days. The onset of the disease is associated with a runny nose. Otoscopy: AD - the auditory canal is free, the skin is not changed, Mt is hyperemic, infiltrated, bulging, there are no identifying points. Rumor on right ear reduced ShR- 2m, Laterization of sound in Weber's experiment to the right.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Right-sided acute otitis media

159. The patient complains of pain in the right ear, suppuration, headache, and hearing loss. Regarding acute purulent otitis was treated on an outpatient basis, but without effect, suppuration continued. Two days ago, pain appeared in the area behind the ear, body temperature increased to 37.5 degrees, and the amount of purulent discharge from the ear increased. Objectively: AD - swelling is detected in the postauricular area, the postauricular fold is smoothed. Percussion reveals pain in the projection area of the mastoid process. The ear canal is filled with liquid pus; after using the toilet, perforation Mt- is detected in the tense part, and pus quickly accumulates. In the bony region, the ear canal is narrowed due to overhang posterosuperior wall. ShR-2m on the right.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Acute moderate right-sided perforated purulent otitis, complicated by mastoiditis.

160. A 35-year-old patient was admitted to the ENT clinic with complaints of: severe dizziness(feeling of objects rotating in left side), nausea, vomiting, ringing in the left ear, balance disorders. The patient had a history of similar attacks over the past five years. At the beginning, the attacks were short-lived and short-lived, gradually they became more frequent and more pronounced. Hearing has decreased. This attack began suddenly and without visible reasons. AD and AS without visible pathology, spontaneous horizontal nystagmus II degree to the left, deviation of both hands when performing a pointing test.
ShR-left 1.5m, ShRright-5m
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Meniere's disease

161. A 29-year-old patient complains of tinnitus and hearing loss. Five years ago, after giving birth, I first noticed hearing loss, which gradually progressed. Notes that he hears better in noisy environments. No visible pathology was detected from the ENT organs. The auditory canals are wide, without sulfur deposits, Mt-gray, pale, thinned. Sound perception is reduced in both ears. When performing tonal threshold audiometry bone conduction thresholds were within normal limits, air thresholds increased by 35-45 dB. Jelly's experience is negative. No vestibular disorders were identified.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Otosclerosis tympanic form

162. A 45-year-old patient came to the audiology office with complaints of hearing loss over the past year. From the anamnesis it was revealed that she had previously suffered from pyelonephritis, for which she received an intensive course of antibiotic therapy. During the treatment, I noticed the appearance of ringing in the ears and deterioration of hearing. I remembered that I noticed dizziness and unsteadiness in my gait. Upon examination, no visible pathology from the ENT organs was detected. Otoscopy: AD -AS- without features. When examining hearing, pure-tone audiometry showed an increase in bone thresholds by 20-40 dB in a descending manner. Air thresholds increased parallel to bone thresholds, without bone-air or cochlear reserve. Depression of the function of both labyrinths was revealed.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Sensorineural hearing loss I degree

163. A patient was brought to the ENT clinic by ambulance with complaints of headache, a rise in body temperature to 39-40? C, fever, accompanied by hectic temperature changes. From the anamnesis it was revealed that the patient had been suffering from chronic otitis media since childhood. He was repeatedly offered a sanitizing operation, which he did not agree to. Upon examination, the left auditory canal was filled with pus; after using the toilet, a polyp was identified, obstructing the auditory canal, emanating from the posterosuperior quadrant of Mt. Swelling and pain are detected upon palpation of soft tissue along the posterior edge of the mastoid process. X-rays of the temporal bone show destructive changes in the mastoid process, destruction of cells and signs of cavity formation.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic epitympanitis, complicated by polyp and thrombosis of the sigmoid sinus.

164. A 25-year-old patient came to the emergency department of an ENT hospital with complaints of sore throat, hyperthermia, and weakness. According to the patient, he fell ill acutely and associates the onset of the disease with taking a cold drink. History: frequent sore throats. Pharyngoscopy: the pharynx is asymmetrical, infiltration of the posterior velopharyngeal arch is pronounced, the tonsil on the left is displaced medially and anteriorly.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Posterior paratonsillitis on the left

165. A 25-year-old patient consulted a doctor for frequent sore throats, low-grade fibrility, and recurrent arthralgia. When examined in the pharynx: the tonsils are scarred, fused to the arches, not mobile during rotation, the anterior palatine arches are infiltrated, hyperemic, there are caseous plugs in the lacunae. Enlarged lymph nodes are palpated in the maxillary region.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Chronic tonsillitis is a decompensated form.

166. The patient turned to the ENT doctor of the clinic with complaints of: periodic nasal congestion, which appeared after a nasal injury. The patient presented quite characteristic complaints: if he lay on his right side, the right half of his nose was blocked, if he lay on his left side, then the left half of his nose was blocked. Rhinoscopy: the nasal septum is curved to the right, the nasal passage on the right is narrowed, the inferior turbinates are moderately hypertrophied, the nasal mucosa is pale pink.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Vasomotor rhinitis, curvature of the nasal septum.

167. The patient turned to the ENT doctor of the clinic with complaints of weakness, discomfort, nasal congestion and sneezing attacks. On examination: the nasal mucosa is pale with a gray tint, the discharge is serous, copious and watery. According to the patient, this condition has been observed at the same time of year for the last three years. Moreover, the process becomes longer and more difficult every year.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Seasonal atopic rhinitis.

168. The patient turned to the ENT doctor of the clinic with complaints of: copious serous discharge, sneezing attacks and difficulty in nasal breathing. On examination: The nasal mucosa is pale with a bluish or grayish tint, light spots are visible on the surface of the inferior nasal turbinates, the turbinates are hypertrophied and of pasty density. Anemization of the mucous membrane did not lead to a noticeable reduction in the nasal turbinates and provoked an attack of sneezing. According to the patient, sneezing attacks are provoked by: house dust, animal hair, aquarium fish food.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Year-round allergic rhinitis.

169. The patient complained of nasal congestion. He had a history of acute respiratory viral infection. He treated himself. I used Sanorin drops, but there was no improvement. Nasal breathing was not restored. Lately, only naphthyzine has helped. During anterior rhinoscopy, the turbinates are hypertrophied, the mucous membrane is hyperemic, bright red, and there is no pathological discharge.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Drug-induced rhinitis

170. The patient consulted an ENT doctor with complaints of difficulty breathing through the nose and weakness. A detailed examination revealed preserved breathing on the right side, complete absence breathing on the left and difficulty breathing on the right. The nasal mucosa is pale pink, in the left half of the nose there is purulent discharge in the common nasal passage.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Choanal nasal polyp

171. The patient came to the ENT hospital with complaints of difficulty in nasal breathing and weakness. Anterior rhinoscopy revealed pale gray mobile formations and purulent discharge in the common nasal passage.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Polypous rhinosinusitis

172. A 17-year-old patient came to the ENT hospital for recurrent nosebleeds. Upon examination, a curvature of the nasal septum to the right was revealed, but nasal breathing was difficult on both sides. Indirect rhinoscopy revealed a rounded formation filling the upper part of the nasopharynx with a red-brown color.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Juvenile angiofibroma

173. A patient came to the hospital with complaints of difficulty in nasal breathing, more on the right side, and periodically noted dryness and scanty mucous discharge, which recently became purulent mixed with blood. During anterior rhinoscopy: the nasal cavity is lined with purulent-bloody crusts, which are removed in the form of an impression. The nasal mucosa is thinned, red-bluish in color, and there are bleeding granulations in some areas. A perforation is detected in the cartilaginous part of the nasal septum.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Wegener's granulomatosis

174. A high school student received an ear injury - a blow to the auricle with an open palm. Immediately after the injury, the patient felt severe pain in the ear, noise, short-term dizziness, but did not lose consciousness. On otoscopy: the ear canal is free and the area is hyperemic with areas of hemorrhage.
Determine the nature of the ear injury.
Answer: Barotrauma

175. A patient suffering from laryngeal cancer was brought to the emergency room with symptoms of stenosis. A tracheostomy was performed for health reasons. The trachea is opened transversely between the third and fourth rings. A metal tracheostomy tube No. 5 was installed. When examined the next day, the patient developed a cough and a small amount of liquid food in the wound.
What technical error occurred during tracheostomy?
Answer: Damage to the wall of the esophagus

176. A 36-year-old patient consulted an ENT doctor with complaints of pain in the throat after prolonged vocal strain. According to the patient, she always had a low voice, with a soft hoarseness. Breathing is free, symptoms of acute inflammation from the upper respiratory tract didn't mention it. Upon examination, the anterior surface of the neck is not changed; during phonation, tension in the external muscles of the larynx and neck is noted. The pharynx is calm, the mouth opens freely. With indirect laryngoscopy, the epiglottis is mobile, the glottis is free, and the true vocal folds are free. During phonation, pronounced mobility of the vestibular folds is revealed, without their complete closure.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Hypertonic phonosthenia

177. A 48-year-old patient, a long-time smoker, consulted a doctor for hoarseness of voice and attacks of suffocation at night. He was treated for chronic laryngitis, but there was no improvement. Recently, shortness of breath has appeared when walking quickly, and attacks of suffocation have intensified at night. On examination, the pharynx is calm, opening the mouth is not difficult. With indirect laryngoscopy, the epiglottis is mobile, the pyriform sinuses are free, the vestibular part of the larynx is without pathology. The true vocal folds on the right are hyperemic and mobile, the left pale one is limited in mobility, its edge is not smooth. A lumpy gray infiltrate is visible in the subglottic space. Tomography of the larynx reveals asymmetry of the subglottic space due to a dense shadow with uneven edges from the true vocal fold on the left to the cricoid cartilage.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Tumor of the subglottic space

178. The patient came to the emergency room of the ENT hospital with complaints of purulence from the ear, fetid in nature, and moderate pain in the ear. In addition, the patient complained of general weakness, malaise, increased body temperature to 38? C. She has been ill since childhood and has periodic exacerbations. Upon examination, the area of the mastoid process is painless upon palpation and percussion, and is not visually changed. There is purulent discharge in the ear canal with an unpleasant odor. In the anterior superior quadrant of the tympanic membrane there is a marginal perforation through which granulations bulge and bleed when touched with a Vojacek probe. The stretched part of the tympanic membrane is preserved, the membrane is moderately hyperemic and injected. Hearing is reduced, but whispered speech of 4 meters is preserved.
Make a diagnosis.
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic epitympanitis, complicated by granulations.

179. The patient was brought to the department by ambulance in serious condition; he had difficulty answering questions and was inhibited. He complains of suppuration from the left ear and moderate pain. Notes severe headache. Body temperature 38.5? C. From the anamnesis it was revealed that suppuration from the ear has been observed since childhood, otitis media developed after measles. This exacerbation otitis developed after suffering from a cold. Not treated. The day before, a severe headache appeared, the body temperature increased, the general condition worsened, and a short-term loss of consciousness was observed. Due to deteriorating health, he was taken to the emergency room of the ENT hospital. Otoscopically, there is purulent discharge with an unpleasant odor in the left external auditory canal. The tense part of the tympanic membrane is hyperemic; in its posterior upper quadrant there is a marginal defect filled with cholesteotomy masses. Rigidity of the neck muscles is pronounced, Kernig's sign is positive on both sides. The fundus is without features.
Make a diagnosis
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic cholesteotomy otitis, complicated by meningitis.

180. A patient came to the ENT department with complaints of dizziness, unsteadiness of gait, involuntary deviation and periodic falls to the right side. Noise in the ear. In her medical history, she underwent an extensive sanitizing operation on the right ear, performed for suppurating cholesteatoma. IN postoperative period short-term dizziness associated with changes in head position was observed. Recently, these symptoms have intensified, dizziness on the right side has become longer and more pronounced. Gait instability appeared with a constant deviation to the right side. She did not notice any purulent discharge from the ear. When examined by the ENT organs, no visible pathology was found. The radical cavity on the right is completely epidermised, there is no discharge. On the medial wall of the cavity at the site of the projection of the horizontal semicircular canal there is small defect area of epidermization, covered with a crust. When performing a pressor test, symptoms of dizziness and nystagmus appear, which stop on their own.
Make a diagnosis
Answer: Labyrinthine fistula

181. A patient consulted an otorhinolaryngologist with complaints of itching in the ears, foreign body sensation, and decreased hearing in both ears. According to the patient, itching in the ears has been observed over the past year, but over the past week the condition has worsened, weeping and scanty discharge have appeared, and the itching has intensified. On otoscopy, the skin of the external auditory canals is slightly hyperemic and infiltrated. In the membranous-cartilaginous section there are pityriasis-like scales of desquamated epidermis. At the bottom of the bony part of the ear canal, closer to the membrane, there is discharge, mucous with crumbly inclusions. The eardrums are slightly hyperemic.
Make a diagnosis.
Answer: Otomycosis

182. A 45-year-old patient was brought to the inpatient department of the ENT department by a clinic doctor. While cleaning his ear, the patient suddenly became dizzy, felt nauseated and vomited once, and sweated profusely. The patient was laid on the couch. Nystagmus was observed. In the past, similar symptoms were observed, but to a lesser extent, usually during periods when the patient himself performed ear toilet. The patient has been suffering from chronic otitis media since early childhood. Notes periodic exacerbations of the process. When examining the left ear, there are no changes in the skin of the external auditory canal. There is a small amount of purulent discharge in the ear canal. The tympanum is practically absent, a total defect. The mucous membrane of the tympanic cavity is infiltrated, edematous, and moderately bulging. When performing a pressor test, nystagmus is observed. There are no spontaneous vestibular disorders.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic purulent otitis, complicated by labyrinthine fistula.

183. A 32-year-old patient complains of severe pain in the left side of the head, which is especially bothersome in last days. There is no appetite, there are bouts of vomiting not associated with food intake. He has been suffering from middle ear disease with hearing loss for about 15 years. Periodically, there is an exacerbation of the process, accompanied by suppuration. The last exacerbation was observed six months ago, during which a sharp decrease in hearing developed, which continues to this day. The skin is pale gray in color, with an earthy tint. The tongue is coated. Pulse 48 beats per minute. The patient is lethargic, inhibited, and tearful. She cannot carry out the simplest commands, does not understand speech addressed to her, and cannot remember the name of the objects shown to her. She is verbose, pronounces certain words incorrectly, and does not construct sentences correctly. Mild stiffness of the neck muscles is detected, a positive Babinski reflex and a slight increase in deep reflexes on the right are detected. Otoscopy on the right reveals purulent discharge in the ear canal. After toileting, an extensive marginal defect of the tympanic membrane filled with swelling granulations is visible. The projection of the mastoid process is slightly painless. Cerebrospinal fluid cloudy flows out under pressure. A congestive fundus nipple was detected.
Make a diagnosis
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic otitis, complicated by otogenic abscess of the temporal lobe of the brain.

184. Patient S., 45 years old, came to the ENT department with complaints of hoarseness, sore throat, and itching in the throat. He has a history of smoking for 25 years. Swallowing is painless, mouth opening is free. With indirect laryngoscopy: the pyriform sinuses are free and symmetrical, the epiglottis is mobile. The lumen of the larynx is free, with phonation there is a slight incompleteness of the glottis in the middle third. In the interarytenoid space there are cone-shaped dense outgrowths on the surface of the mucosa.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Pachydermic laryngitis

185. Patient S. applied to the ENT department with complaints of: difficulty swallowing, choking liquid food. According to the patient, he has not eaten for three days, body temperature is 39.5 degrees, the skin is moist, the voice is hoarse, breathing is free, opening the mouth is not difficult. On examination, there is diffuse hyperemia in the pharynx, the tonsils are moderately swollen and loose. With indirect laryngoscopy, the pyriform sinuses are filled with saliva, the lingual-epiglottic space is narrowed, the epiglottis is thickened, infiltrated, limited in mobility, the lumen of the larynx is difficult to see, and is free. The vocal folds close.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Abscess of the epiglottis

186. Patient S., 25 years old, came to the emergency room of the ENT clinic with complaints
For sore throat, difficulty swallowing. In her medical history, she underwent a tonsillectomy 5 years ago. On examination, he notices drooling and protruding tongue is painful. When pressing with a spatula on the back third of the tongue, it intensifies pain syndrome to the point of unbearable. There is diffuse hyperemia in the pharynx. When examining the laryngopharynx, there are single point formations of gray-yellow color in the projection of the root of the tongue.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Lingual sore throat

187. A 20-year-old patient came to the emergency room with complaints of a sore throat that worsened when swallowing and talking, weakness and malaise. Increase in body temperature to 38?, swelling in the submandibular and submental areas. On palpation in the submental area, there is an infiltrate spreading to the front and left lateral surface of the neck, the skin is hyperemic. Opening the mouth is difficult, the tongue is raised, and there is a foul odor from the mouth. Upon examination, the pharynx is hyperemic, and compaction of the soft tissues of the floor of the mouth is determined. He became acutely ill after extraction of a carious tooth.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Cellulitis of the floor of the mouth

188. A 52-year-old patient was hospitalized in the ENT department with complaints of diplopia when looking to the left, slight drooping when looking to the left, drooping of the upper eyelid on the left, impaired abduction of the eyeball. Notes recurrent headaches occipital region, periodic nasal congestion, accumulation of discharge in the nasopharynx. The ophthalmologist did not reveal any visual pathology; the fundus was without any features. Radiographs of the PPN reveal a homogeneous darkening in the area of the left sphenoid sinus and the posterior cells of the ethmoidal labyrinth. The remaining paranasal sinuses are without pathology.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Chronic purulent ethmoiditis, sphenoiditis

189. A 50-year-old patient was hospitalized in the ENT department with complaints of constant transparent discharge from one half of the nose, worsening when tilting the head down. Somatically healthy. The history indicates previous meningitis. Objectively: During rhinoscopy: the nasal mucosa is pink, moist, the nasal passages are free, no visible pathology was detected. No pathology was detected from other ENT organs. The patient was asked to demonstrate the nature of the discharge. In a sitting position with the head tilted forward, after a few minutes a clear liquid appeared in the form of several drops.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Nasal liquorrhea

190. A 15-year-old patient was hospitalized in the ENT department with complaints of difficulty in nasal breathing. History: 2 days ago I received a nose injury during a physical education lesson - hit in the face with a ball. On examination, the nasal septum in the cartilaginous region was symmetrically swollen. No pathology was detected from other ENT organs.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Nasal septum hematoma

191. A 10-year-old girl was taken to the emergency room with complaints of sore throat, fever, weakness, malaise. According to her medical history, she fell ill three days ago. Objectively: The patient’s condition is assessed as moderate, body temperature 40?, skin wet. During pharyngoscopy: The pharyngeal mucosa is hyperemic, the tonsils are covered with a white coating, and an enlargement of the lymph nodes of the neck, submandibular and maxillary region is determined. Enlarged lymph nodes in the axillary and groin areas were detected.
In blood tests: leukocytes-13 x 109 g/l
Segmented neutrophils -23%
Rod -0%
Lymphocytes-50%
Eosinophils-0%
Monocytes-26
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Monocytic tonsillitis.

192. A 60-year-old patient, due to a hypertensive crisis, has decreased hearing in her left ear and has developed ringing. Hearing loss has persisted over the past year. Objectively, no pathology was detected by the ENT organs. AD -AS ear canals are free, Mt- gray in color without signs of inflammation. SR-on the right ear 5m, on the left ear - hears only loud spoken speech. On the audiogram: AD - hearing preserved, AS - increase in bone thresholds of tonal perception by 50-55 dts in a descending manner.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Left-sided chronic sensorineural hearing loss of vascular origin

193. The patient consulted an ENT doctor with complaints of a feeling of awkwardness when swallowing, tingling, and a sensation of a foreign body in the throat. This uncomfortable state has been observed over the past year. Over the past two weeks, the sensations described above have intensified. An examination of the ENT organs revealed: a curvature of the nasal septum to the left, difficult nasal breathing, which does not bother the patient. In the pharynx, the lateral ridges are thickened, on the posterior wall of the pharynx there are islands of hyperplastic lymphoid tissue, against the background of pale pharyngeal mucosa. Palatine tonsils are small without plaques or plugs.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Lateral and granulosa pharyngitis

194. The patient during prof. examination revealed dense plugs on the surface of the palatine tonsils. When examining the root of the tongue, similar formations were revealed at the site of the projection of the lingual tonsil. The plugs are cone-shaped, rise above the surface of the mucous membrane, and are difficult to remove.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Pharyngomycosis

195. An 18-year-old patient was brought to the emergency room by ambulance with complaints of malaise, headache, and sore throat. She became acutely ill and considered herself ill for three days. The patient is weakened and has difficulty sitting. The skin is pale, moist, body temperature is 38-39°, pulse is 82 beats per minute. The pharyngeal mucosa is hyperemic with a bluish tint, the tonsils are enlarged and covered with a dirty gray coating, spreading to the palatine arches. The plaques are difficult to remove; beneath them is bleeding tonsil tissue. Soft fabrics around the palatine tonsils are pasty, swollen, bad breath. Swelling of soft tissues was detected in the maxillofacial area and the lateral surface of the neck.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Diphtheria pharynx

196. Patient N., 45 years old, who moved from Belarus, turned to an ENT doctor with complaints of difficulty breathing, dry nasal cavity, and accumulation of crusts in it. Recently, he has been experiencing persistent hoarseness, shortness of breath on exertion, and cough. Considers himself sick for the last 10-15 years. Clinical manifestations of the disease developed slowly without pain or fever. The lumen of the nasal cavity is narrowed due to dense pale pink infiltrates, which are localized in the vestibule of the nose and spread further to the choanae. In the pharynx - the soft palate is shortened, scarred, the uvula is turned posteriorly, the lumen of the pharynx is narrowed. In the larynx, cicatricial changes were detected in the subglottic space.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Scleroma of the nose, pharynx, larynx.

197. A 52-year-old woman consulted an ENT doctor with complaints of a formation in the auricle, which did not cause any concern. According to her, the patient first noticed the formation about a year ago. At the beginning it looked like a speck, gradually increasing in size. Recently, the surface of the formation has become ulcerated, covered with a crust, and an infiltrate has appeared around it. When I accidentally touched the auricle, pain began to appear, and when the crust was removed, a drop of blood appeared. When examined in the thicket of the shell, closer to the skin of the ear canal, a formation measuring 1.0x1.5 cm, dense, lumpy, covered with a crust, around the formation there is a rim of hyperemic skin.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Basal cell carcinoma of the auricle

198. A 25-year-old patient consulted an ENT doctor with complaints of headache, weakness, malaise, nasal congestion, and purulent discharge. According to the patient, she became acutely ill after suffering from hypothermia. On examination, the nasal mucosa is hyperemic, moderately edematous, with purulent discharge in the common nasal passage. The x-ray shows the fluid level against the background of parietal hyperplasia of the maxillary sinus mucosa.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic bilateral sinusitis

199. A 25-year-old patient was brought to the emergency room of the ENT department with complaints of difficulty in nasal breathing, swelling and pain in the vestibule of the nose, and an increase in body temperature to 38?. According to the patient, about two weeks ago he received an injury to the external nose - an accidental blow with his hand during a sports game. There was no bleeding. Nasal congestion appeared, which did not bother me much. For the last two or three days, my nose has become swollen, pain has appeared, and my body temperature has risen to 38.5°. During anterior rhinoscopy, the nasal septum in the cartilaginous section is symmetrically enlarged, the edematous mucosa is sharply hyperemic.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Suppurating hematoma of the nasal septum

1. The anterior part of the nasal septum is formed by cartilage:

QUADAGONAL CARTILAGE

2. Duct maxillary sinus opens into the nasal passage:

3. The maxillary (Maxillary) sinuses are finally developing:

4. Antibacterial drops are used for acute rhinitis:

5. In case of nosebleeds, the correct position of the head is:
-HEAD IN A FLIGHT POSITION OR SLIGHTLY TILT FORWARD

6. Sphenoiditis is inflammation of the sinus:
-WEDGE-shaped

7. With inflammation of the maxillary sinus, the characteristic localization of pain is:
- PAIN IN THE MAXIMUM SINUS AREA ON BOTH SIDES, NOSE ROOT, ORBITS, TEMPORAL REGION, IN THE BRAIN COMPARTMENT OF THE SKULL

8. A strip of pus in the middle meatus is a sign of:
- MAXILLARY SINUS (INFLECTION OF THE MAXILLARY SINUS)

9. A characteristic sign of sphenoiditis is:
-CONSTANT PAIN IN THE occipital part of the head, profuse discharge of pus and mucus from the nose, deterioration of the sense of smell. FEELING OF CONSTANT UNPLEASANT ODOR, GENERAL INTOXICATION

10. The mucous membrane of the pharynx is equipped with ciliated epithelium in the area:

Nasopharynx(upper part of the pharynx)

11. Foreign bodies in the nasal cavity are typical for children aged:
-UP TO 5-7 YEARS OLD

12. The main sinuses are located:
-IN THE BODY OF THE WEDGE-FOID BONE????

13. The most dangerous complication of a nasal boil is:
-LYMPHADENITIS(INDUCTION OF LYMPH VESSELS), THROMBOPHLEBITIS OF FACIAL VEINS, SEPSIS

14. The nature of discharge during the first stage of acute rhinitis

NO ALLOCATIONS

15. Inflammation of the frontal sinus is designated by the term:
-FRONTIT

16. It is contraindicated for a patient with hypertension to soak tampons during nosebleeds:

SOLUTION OF EPHEDRINE

17. Localization of pain during inflammation of the sphenoid sinus:
-HEADACHE IN THE AREA OF THE occipital OR DEPTH OF THE HEAD, headaches in the eye sockets. PARIETO-TEMPORAL REGION

18. The correct position of a patient with sinusitis when administering drops into the nose:
-

19. On the lateral wall of the nasal cavity there is a concha:
-

20. Open into the lower nasal passage:
-NASOLACRIMAL CHANNEL

21. The nature of discharge during the second stage of acute rhinitis:
-TRANSPARENT

22. The term “cacosmia” means:

UNPLEASANT SMELL

23. The most dangerous complication of a foreign body in the nasal cavity:
-NASAL BREATHING DIFFICULTY

24. The length of the turunda during anterior nasal tamponade in an adult should be:
-60-70 CM

25. Ozena is the form of:
-

26. Swelling of the upper eyelid is characteristic of sinus lesions:
-FRONTAL. GRID

27. The olfactory zone is located in the area:
-

28. Localization of pain in the back of the head is typical for:
-SPHENOIDITIS (Sphenoid SINUS)

29. To diagnose chronic allergic rhinitis, the following is used:
-

30. Trepanopuncture of the sinus is a method of treatment:
-FRONTITA

31. The Kisselbach zone is located:
-IN THE FRONT OF THE NASAL SEPTUM

32. Rhinogenic orbital complications of sinusitis include:
-

33. Digital examination of the nasopharynx is performed for diagnosis:
-ADENOIDS

34. The causative agent of ulcerative necrotic tonsillitis is:
- SPIROCHETES OF VINCENT, SPINDLE-SHAPED ROC

35. The discovery of a dirty-gray, difficult-to-remove plaque on the tonsil is typical for:
-DIPHTHERIA

36. Wide opening of the abscess is a method of treatment:
-

37. Characteristic signs of paratonsillitis are:
-

38. Indications for washing tonsil lacunae are:

39. Adenoids are located in the following section of the pharynx:

40. The mouth of the auditory tube is located:

41. The third degree of enlargement of the adenoids is characterized by the closure of the vomer:

42. A characteristic sign of follicular tonsillitis is:

43. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are contraindicated in the treatment of:

44. The detection of white, loose plaque on the tonsils is typical for:

45. The indication for tonsillectomy is past illness:

46. Difficulty in nasal breathing, snoring at night are typical for:

47. Reverse development of lymphoid tissue in children occurs:

48. A characteristic sign of lacunar angina is:

49. Asymmetry of the pharynx is characteristic of:

50. The formation of bubbles on the mucous membrane of the soft palate is characteristic of:

51. Recurrent otitis is a characteristic complication:

52. The term “adenotomy” means:

53. Among the cartilages that form the larynx, the unpaired one is:

54. It borders on the membranous part of the trachea:

55. A characteristic sign of subglottic laryngitis is:

57. Inflammation of the larynx is designated by the term:

58. The most characteristic sign of acute laryngitis is:

59. If a foreign body of the larynx is suspected, the following emergency care is required:

60. The conical ligament is located between:

61. A characteristic sign of laryngeal diphtheria is:

62. If a foreign body of the esophagus is suspected, emergency care is performed:

63. In case of chemical burns of the esophagus, emergency assistance is required in the form of lavage of the esophagus and stomach:

64. Indications for tracheotomy are:

65. Complications of a tracheal foreign body include:

66. A characteristic sign of subglottic laryngitis is:

67. An attack of subglottic laryngitis most often occurs at the age of:

68. The most dangerous complication of esophageal injury:

69. Sign of a foreign body in the esophagus:

70. Acute aphonia is a sign of:

71. The “pop” symptom is characteristic of:

72. The larynx in an adult is located at the level of:

73. The element of the middle ear is:

74. A healthy ear can hear spoken speech at a distance of no more than:

75. A positive “tragus” symptom in a child of the first year of life serves as a sign of:

76. When introducing drops into the ear, the temperature of the liquid should be:

77. Itching in the external auditory canal is a sign of:

78. A drug contraindicated for the treatment of otitis media is:

79. Labyrinthitis is an inflammation of:

80. BTE novocaine blockade is a method of treatment:

81. The otolithic apparatus is located:

82. Nystagmus is a sign of damage:

83. The auditory tube connects tympanic cavity:

84. The semicircular canals are an element of:

85. A positive “tragus symptom” in an adult is characteristic of:

86. Deterioration of hearing after swimming is typical for:

87. To test vestibular function the following is used:

89. If blood leaks from the external auditory canal, it is recommended:

90. Protrusion of the auricle, pain in the area behind the ear is a sign of:

91. A characteristic sign of labyrinthitis is:

92. Suppuration from the external auditory canal is typical for:

93. Central part auditory analyzer located:

94. Discharge from the external auditory canal clear liquid is a sign of injury:

95. The element of the inner ear is:

96. Peripheral part vestibular analyzer located:

97. Suppuration from the ear is a sign of:

98. Ear “stuffiness” after swimming is a sign of:

99. A characteristic sign of acute otitis media is:

100. A characteristic sign of labyrinthitis is:

101. Removal of a foreign body from the external auditory canal is carried out using:

102. Audiometry is a research method:

DERMATOVENEROLOGY

Primary morphological element:
Secondary morphological element:
Dark field microscopy is used to diagnose:
Keratolytic agent:
Between the epidermis and dermis is located:
Apocrine sweat glands are located in the area:
Sebaceous glands:
There are no sebaceous glands
Erosion is formed within:
The epidermis includes:
Skin appendages include:
Sweat glands have:
Ingredients of the cream:
Powder to ratio fat-like substance in pastes:
Streptococcus causes:
Antibiotics are prescribed when the boil is localized:
Dermatophytoses include:
During mass preventive examinations to identify microsporia, the following is used:
The emergency notice is filled out:
Muff-like covers on the hair are present when:
Herpes simplex is characterized by:
Skeletal system for tertiary syphilis:
A set of instruments for instillation into the urethra in men:
Tactics of a health worker when identifying erosive and ulcerative rashes on the genitals
Herpes zoster is characterized by damage
Tertiary syphilis manifests itself as:
Your actions when identifying scabies in a team:
Sycosis is usually localized on the skin:
The skin has no function
Inflammatory spots include
The most common sites of localization for scabies in adults
Children with disabilities should be isolated from children's institutions. skin disease
Priority problem for scabies
The causative agent of scabies
A serious complication of urticaria
For etiotropic treatment of scabies it is used
The main route of infection with syphilis
Syphilis on Latin
Potential physiological problem in a patient with gonorrhea
The causative agent of gonorrhea
Basic drugs for the treatment of gonorrhea

OPHTHALMOLOGY

1. The thinnest wall of the orbit is:

2. The optic nerve canal serves to pass:

3. Eye development begins at:

4. Fluid outflow from the anterior chamber occurs through:

5. Vitreous body performs all functions:

6. Main function visual analyzer, without which all the rest of it cannot develop visual functions, is:

7. For the first time, a table for determining visual acuity was compiled by:

8. If a person distinguishes from a distance of 1 meter only the first line of the table for determining visual acuity, then his visual acuity is equal to:

9. There is no light perception in a patient with:

10. In an adult, intraocular pressure should not normally exceed:

11. The bactericidal effect of tears is ensured by the presence in it of:

12. Refractive power is taken as 1 diopter optical lens with a focal length of:

13. Changes in the eyelids due to inflammatory edema include:

14. Clinical signs erysipelas century include:

15. Scaly blepharitis is characterized by:

16. With adenoviral infection of the eye, the following is observed:

17. With orbital phlegmon the following is observed:

18. Primary benign tumors of the orbit include:

19. Indications for enucleation are:

20. The main symptom of eyelid emphysema:

21. When allergic dermatitis observed:

22. Traumatic swelling of the eyelids is accompanied by:

23. Indications for opening an eyelid abscess are:

24. In case of damage to the skin of the eyelids herpes simplex observed:

25. Miotics are prescribed for:

26. Local anesthetics are used for:

27. Vasodilators are prescribed for:

28. Absorbable agents are prescribed for:

29. Indications for the use of cauterizing and astringent agents are:

30. Visual acuity equal to

PHTHISIATRICS

GERIATRICS

OBSTETRICS

1. The internal genital organs include:

2. The menstrual cycle is:

3. Timely birth is birth at term:

4. One of the main symptoms of late gestosis is:

5. The priority problem for a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is:

6. The priority problem of a pregnant woman with a miscarriage is:

8. Physiological duration of pregnancy:

9. Deadline for issuing prenatal leave:

10. Duration of prenatal and postnatal leave (in the absence of complications):

11. Possible signs of pregnancy include:

12. With Snegirev's symptom the following is observed:

13. Bulging of the angle of the uterus, detected during vaginal bimanual examination, is called:

14. With the Horwitz-Hegar symptom, the following occurs:

15. Hospitalization in the observation department of a maternity hospital is indicated if a woman in labor has:

16. The deepest vault of the vagina is:

17. Non-sterile gloves can be used in the maternity hospital:

18. According to indications, the pregnant woman is examined by:

19. In a physiologically progressing pregnancy, the pregnant woman visits a dentist:

20. The fusion of sex cells between a man and a woman is called:

21. Most often, an ectopic pregnancy develops in:

22. The thickness of the pelvic bones is determined using:

23. The vertical dimension of the Michaelis rhombus is equal to the size

24. Termination of pregnancy at the request of the woman is carried out at:

25. With bicornuate and saddle uterus:

26. The relationship of the fetal limbs and head to its body is called:

27. Before applying the Rogovin brace, the umbilical cord is processed:

28. The filling of shared rooms in the postpartum department occurs:

29. The distance between the upper edge of the pubic symphysis and the upper angle of the Michaelis rhombus is called:

30. The normal vaginal environment is:

31. Obstetric hospitals with wards intensive care for women and for newborns belong to hospitals:

32. Symptoms of cervical cancer early stages:

33. Cytological examination for atypical cells is carried out for:

34. Hysterosalpingography is performed for the following purposes:

35. Before performing an ultrasound examination of the pelvic organs:

36. Before performing a bimanual vaginal examination, you must:

37. Before performing laparoscopic surgery on the pelvic organs:

38. Inflammation of the large gland of the vaginal vestibule is called:

39. The nature of discharge during candidiasis:

40. Women after childbirth that occurred outside a medical institution are hospitalized in:

41. The uterus takes on an hourglass shape:

42. The triad of symptoms of late gestosis (OPG-gestosis) includes:

43. The relationship of the large part of the fetus to the entrance to the pelvis is called:

44. The principles of organizing obstetric and gynecological care are determined by order of the Russian Ministry of Health:

45. Organizational issues infection safety obstetric hospital are defined as follows normative document

46. He was the first to propose the use of methods for the prevention of nosocomial infections in obstetrics:

47. Medical staff of maternity hospitals must undergo fluorographic examination:

48. For processing surgical field and external genitalia of a woman in labor before delivery can be applied:

49. Upon admission to gynecological department maternity hospital patient:

50. Cohabitation of a postpartum mother with a child:

51. In the postpartum physiological department, bed linen for postpartum women is changed:

52. To prevent gonoblennorrhea in a newborn, the following is used:

53. A diagnostic pregnancy test (urinalysis) is based on determining:

54. Lengthening the outer segment of the umbilical cord by 8-10 cm is called a sign of separation of the placenta:

55. A pregnant woman with a narrow pelvis should be hospitalized in maternity hospital:

56. The second stage of labor is called the period:

57. In the postpartum department, the guard nurse:

58. If there are positive signs of placenta separation and physiological blood loss, you must:

59. The first degree of vaginal cleanliness is characterized by:

60. The external os of a nulliparous woman has the shape:

61. The distance between the lower edge of the symphysis and the most prominent point of the promontory, measured during vaginal examination, is called the conjugate:

62. Distance between the most distant points of the skewers femur called:

63. To determine the estimated fetal weight using the Jordania method, you must:

64. When the fetus is in cephalic presentation, the heartbeat can be heard:

65. The ratio of the longitudinal axis of the fetal body to the longitudinal axis of the mother's body is called:

66. After a normal birth, the mother in labor is under observation in the maternity ward:

67. The set of movements that the fetus makes as it passes through the pelvis and birth canal is called:

68. It is most rational to cross the umbilical cord during uncomplicated childbirth:

69. Putting a baby to the mother's breast in the absence of complications is rational:

70. A mild form of early gestosis in pregnant women is characterized by:

71. Nausea is a sign of pregnancy:

72. Progesterone during pregnancy, in addition to the ovaries, is also produced by:

73. Risk of Rh conflict between mother and fetus:

74. A woman’s blood is monitored for Rh antibodies if there is a risk of Rh conflict:

75. Next clinical stage miscarriage after threatening:

76. With complete uterine rupture:

77. The presence of a patient's history of two or more consecutive spontaneous miscarriages (abortions) is called:

78. If the size of the fetal head does not correspond to the size of the mother’s pelvis, the diagnosis is made:

79. The fetal heartbeat in the second stage of labor is listened to:

80. Main functions of the placenta:

81. Abdominal circumference in pregnant women is measured:

82. With the help of the third external obstetric examination according to Leopold, the following is determined:

83. Primiparous and multiparous women begin to feel fetal movement according to:

84. Contractions are muscle contractions.

1. Otoscopy is an examination

a) pharynx

b) ear

c) larynx

d) nose

2. Pharyngoscopy is an examination

a) pharynx

b) nose

c) ear

d) larynx

3. Indirect laryngoscopy is an examination

a) larynx

b) ear

c) pharynx

d) nose

4. Rhinoscopy is an examination

a) ear

b) pharynx

c) larynx

d) nose

5. Acute otitis media- this is inflammation

a) middle ear

b) palatine tonsils

c) nasal mucosa

d) pharyngeal mucosa

6. Complications when foreign bodies enter the larynx include

a) pneumonia

b) nosebleed

c) anosmia

d) inflammation of the middle ear

7. A throat swab is taken to exclude

a) diphtheria

b) syphilis

c) tuberculosis

d) salmonellosis

8. Pharyngoscopy is performed using

a) spatula

b) nasal planum

c) ear funnel

d) Kulikovsky needles

9. Puncture of the maxillary sinus is performed using

a) nasopharyngeal mirror

b) Kulikovsky needles

c) ear funnel

d) spatula

10. Adenotomy is removal

a) palatine tonsils

b) nasopharyngeal tonsil

c) lingual tonsil

d) nasal polyps

11. Acute adenoiditis is inflammation

a) nasopharyngeal tonsil

b) nasal mucosa

c) palatine tonsils

d) maxillary sinuses

12. Tonsillotome is necessary for

a) partial removal of the tonsils

b) removal of the nasopharyngeal tonsil

c) removal of the lingual tonsil

d) puncture of the maxillary sinus

13. For acute sore throats characteristic symptom is

a) nasal breathing disorder

c) pain when swallowing

d) hearing loss

14. Inflammatory diseases of the pharynx include

a) tonsillitis

b) acute laryngitis

c) otitis media

d) bronchitis

15. Anomalies of the external ear include

a) choanal atresia

b) non-fusion of the hard palate

c) microtia

d) macrotia

16. Ear liquorrhea occurs when

a) fracture of the base of the skull and temporal bone

b) nasal injuries

c) ear injuries

c) injuries of the palatine tonsils

17. During otoscopy in children, the auricle is pulled back

a) up and back

b) forward and down

c) forward towards yourself

d) down and back

18. The cause of acute inflammation of the middle ear in children is

a) tonsillitis

b) laryngitis

c) pathology in the nasopharynx

d) pharyngitis

19. The child’s larynx is located at the level of the cervical vertebra

20. Foreign bodies of the larynx are localized in

b) nasopharynx

c) oropharynx

d) bronchi

Diabetes tests in ophthalmology – 20 questions

1. Visual acuity is determined using

a) perimeter

b) tables of Rabkin E.B.

c) tables of Sivtsev D.A.

d) refractometer

2. Visual acuity equal to

3. Peripheral vision characterizes

a) visual acuity

b) field of view

c) dark adaptation

G) light adaptation

4. Cloudiness of the lens is called

a) microphakia

b) cataracts

c) macrophakia

d) myopia

5. Characteristic complaint with mature cataracts

a) lack of object vision

b) discharge from the eye

c) improvement of previously reduced vision

d) pain in the eye

6. Inflammation of the mucous membrane of the eye is called

a) dacryocystitis

b) conjunctivitis

c) dacryoadenitis

d) blepharitis

7. The nature of discharge from the eyes in diphtheria conjunctivitis

a) cloudy with flakes

b) mucopurulent, purulent

c) the color of meat slop

d) there is no discharge

8. The nature of the discharge during gonoblenorrhea

a) cloudy with flakes

b) mucopurulent, purulent

c) the color of meat slop

d) lacrimation

9. Swelling of the eyelids with diphtheria conjunctivitis

a) dense

b) “wooden”, purple-bluish

c) soft, hyperemic

d) absent

10. Gonoblenorrhea of the newborn, if infection occurred during the passage of the child through the birth canal, begins after birth

a) on the 5th day

b) in 2-3 days

c) immediately

d) in 2 weeks

11. To prevent gonoblennorrhea, a solution is instilled into the eyes of newborns

a) 0.25% chloramphenicol

b) 30% sodium sulfacyl

c) 3% collargol

d) furatsilin 1:5000

12. An eye patch is applied when

a) conjunctivitis

b) keratitis

c) eye injury

d) bleforitis

13. Diseases of the eyelids include

c) keratitis, conjunctivitis

d) cataract, aphakia

14. Diseases of the lacrimal apparatus include

a) dacryocystitis, dacryoadenitis

b) blepharitis, stye, chalazion

c) keratitis, conjunctivitis

d) cataract, aphakia

15. The cause of stye is

a) injury

b) infection

c) allergies

d) anemia

16. Inflammation of the cornea is

a) iritis

b) keratitis

c) cyclite

d) blepharitis

17. Sign of congenital glaucoma in a newborn

a) squint

b) increase in corneal size

c) endophthalmos

d) nystagmus

18. Intraocular pressure during penetrating eye injury

a) does not change

b) sharply increased

c) reduced

d) slightly increased

19. In case of a penetrating injury to the eye, the patient must be administered parenterally

a) broad-spectrum antibiotic

b) 40% glucose solution

c) 25% magnesium sulfate solution

d) 1% solution nicotinic acid

20. Emergency care for eye burns with acid

a) rinse eyes with water for 10-20 minutes and 0.1% solution acetic acid

b) rinse eyes with water for 10-20 minutes and 2% sodium bicarbonate solution

c) drip a 30% sodium sulfacyl solution into the conjunctival cavity and administer an antibiotic ointment

d) introduce antibiotic ointment into the conjunctival cavity b